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Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Question Paper 3 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hour 15 Min
Full Marks : 100

Instructions

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefull.
4. This question paper has two sections : Section -A and Section-B.
5. In Section-A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/ Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section-B, there are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 08 Long answer type questions, out-of which any 04 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. -1 to 50 have four options provided, out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. [50 x = 50]

Question 1.
“A Plan is a trap to capture the future.” This statement is of
(a) Newman
(b) Hurley
(c) Allen
(d) Terry
Answer:
(c) Allen

Question 2.
According to George R. Terry, the types of planning are-
(a) 08
(b) 06
(c) 04
(d) 02
Answer:
(c) 04

Question 3.
Planning is for
(a) Present
(b) Future
(c) Past
(d) All
Answer:
(b) Future

Question 4.
Planning is
(a) Necessary
(b) Un necessary
(c) Wastage of time
(d) Wastage of money
Answer:
(a) Necessary

Question 5.
Of all mangerial activites planning is the
(a) Beginning
(b) End
(c) Beginning and End
(d) None of Those
Answer:
(a) Beginning

Question 6.
Father of scientific management was-
(a) Taylor
(b) Urbick
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) Kimbell
Answer:
(a) Taylor

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is inconsistent ?
(a) Management is purposeful
(b) Instinct process
(c) Universal
(d) Not separate from ownership
Answer:
(b) Instinct process

Question 8.
Henry Fayol’s principles of management are-
(a) 05
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 14

Question 9.
When scientific management was introduced ?
(a) 1913
(b) 1832
(c) 1903
(d) 1920
Answer:
(a) 1913

Question 10.
By scientific management workers get-
(a) Advantage
(b) Disadvantage
(c) None
(d) Both Advantage & Disadvantage
Answer:
(a) Advantage

Question 11.
Wages given to workers in traditional management was-
(a) Low
(b) High
(c) Maximum
(d) Normal
Answer:
(a) Low

Question 12.
The experiment done by Taylor under scientific management were-
(a) Motion Study
(b) Fatigue Study
(c) Time Study
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 13.
Mental revolution is the essence of-
(a) Scientific Management
(b) Combination
(c) Rationalisation
(d) Profession
Answer:
(a) Scientific Management

Question 14.
Henry Fayol was born in-
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) America
Answer:
(b) France

Question 15.
Principles of management are-
(a) Universal
(b) Flexible
(c) Dynamic
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Dynamic

Question 16.
Development of employees involve-
(a) Transfer
(b) Promotion
(c) Training
(d) All
Answer:
(d) All

Question 17.
Methods of Training are-
(a) Conference
(b) Lectures
(c) Apprenticeship
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 18.
Employees training is-
(a) Unnecessary
(b) Necessary
(c) Compulsory
(d) Luxury
Answer:
(c) Compulsory

Question 19.
Money spent on staffing is-
(a) Necessary
(b) Wastage
(c) Investment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Investment

Question 20.
Human Resource Development includes-
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 21.
Main elements of direction are-
(a) 02
(b) 03
(c) 04
(d) 06
Answer:
(c) 04

Question 22.
Direction is related to employees
(a) Top Level
(b) Middle Level
(c) Lower Level
(d) All Level
Answer:
(d) All Level

Question 23.
Direction is
(a) Compulsory
(b) Necesssary
(c) Unnecessary
(d) Wastage of time
Answer:
(a) Compulsory

Question 24.
Supervision is
(a) Necessary
(b) un nesessary
(c) Wastage of time
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Necessary

Question 25.
For Stock exchange the service of SEBI is
(a) Volntary
(b) Nessary
(c) un necessary
(d) Compulsory
Answer:
(d) Compulsory

Question 26.
Marketing includes-
(a) Purchase
(b) Sale
(c) Warehousing
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 27.
Which one is not the consumer product among the following ?
(a) Raw materials
(b) Refrigerator
(c) Old statues
(d) Shoes
Answer:
(c) Old statues

Question 28.
Essentials of a good brand are-
(a) Short name
(b) Easy to remember
(c) Attractive design
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 29.
Labelling is compulsory in packed consumer products- ”
(a) All
(b) A Few
(c) None
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) All

Question 30.
Co-ordination is-
(a) Voluntary
(b) Necessary
(c) Unnecessary
(d) Wastage of time
Answer:
(b) Necessary

Question 31.
Co-ordination is established by-
(a) Highest level management
(b) Medium level management
(c) Low level management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Low level management

Question 32.
According to George R. Terry the functions of management are-
(a) 02
(b) 04
(c) 06
(d) 07
Answer:
(b) 04

Question 31.
Co-ordination is established by-
(a) Highest level management
(b) Medium level management
(c) Low level management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Low level management

Question 32.
According to George R. Terry the functions of management are-
(a) 02
(b) 04
(c) 06
(d) 07
Answer:
(b) 04

Question 33.
The essence of management is-
(a) Co-ordination
(b) Organisation
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(a) Co-ordination

Question 34.
The nature of management is-
(a) As an inborn ability
(b) As an acquired ability
(c) As inborn ability & as an acquired Ability both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) As an inborn ability

Question 35.
Management is,
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Art and science both
(d) Profession
Answer:
(c) Art and science both

Question 36.
Which of the following attitudes is not generally associated with successful entreprenenship ?
(a) Competition and co-operation
(b) Desire to influence others
(c) Innovation and product improvements
(d) Staticity in business
Answer:
(b) Desire to influence others

Question 37.
Physical distribution does not include-
(a) Transportation
(b) Financing
(c) Warehousing
(d) Inventory control
Answer:
(b) Financing

Question 38.
Which is not an element of promotion mix ?
(a) Advertisements
(b) Personal selling
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Product development
Answer:
(a) Advertisements

Question 39.
Advertisement is deemed as-
(a) Wastage
(b) Investments
(c) Luxury
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Investments

Question 40.
Objectives of sales promotion are-
(a) To introduce with new products only
(b) To attract new customers only
(c) To counter competitor only
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 41.
New economic policy was declared in
(a) July 1990
(b) July 1991
(c) July 1992
(d) July 2001
Answer:
(b) July 1991

Question 42.
National Commission can settle disputes
(a) up to Rs.5 lakhs
(b) up to Rs.10 lakhs
(c) up to Rs.15 lakhs
(d) above Rs.l crore
Answer:
(c) up to Rs.15 lakhs

Question 43.
Management is a profession.” This statement is of
(a) George R. Terry
(b) American Management Association
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) American Management Association

Question 44.
Control is the _________ function of the management.
(a) first
(b) Last
(c) Third
(d) second
Answer:
(b) Last

Question 45.
Which of the following is related with social environment ?
(a) Composition of families
(b) Consumer Protection Act
(c) Business Law
(d) Privatisation
Answer:
(a) Composition of families

Question 46.
The feature of a good plan is
(a) Expensive
(b) Time consuming
(c) Flexible
(d) Rigid
Answer:
(b) Time consuming

Question 47.
Co-ordination is established by
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) Middle level management

Question 48.
Marketing concept is
(a) Production co-oriented
(b) Sales – oriented
(c) Customer- oriented
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 49.
Fixed capital is needed for period.
(a) short period
(b) long period
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) long period

Question 50.
Capital market deals in
(a) short – term funds
(b) medium term funds
(c) long term funds
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) long term funds

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question no. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 out of them. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 x 3 = 30)

Question 1.
What is meant by recruitment ? How is it different from selection ?
Answer:
Recruitment-This means to search prospective candidates and to stimulate them to apply for jobs in an organisation.
Distinction between selection and recruitment :

1. Recruitment is inviting and procuring application where as selection is processing and screening applicants
2. Recruitment is a medium while selection is the end results
3. Recruitment is a positive process, while selection is a negative one.
4. The process of selection starts, where the process of recruitment ends.

Question 2.
What is critical point control ?
Answer:
Critical point control-Control can not be excercised at all points of an activity, as it may be time-consuming and very expensive. Managers should identify the important or critical points which must be looked after. If these critical points or Key Results Areas (KRAs) are properly controlled, the entire activity would be deemed to have been controlled. In a labour-oriented industry, for example, 10% increase in wages will be more deterimental for the enterprise than .the amount to be spent for the purchase of furniture and crockery for the worker’s canteen.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of SEBI ?
Answer:
The followings are the objectives of SEBI:

1. To protect the investers’ interest in securities
2. To promote and develop securities market
3. To develop code of conduct for intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers etc.
4. To mobilise and allocate resources through securities market
5. To provide facilitate of competitive, professionalized and expanding market to the intermediaries.

Question 4.
How does planning make controlling possible ?
Answer:
Planning make controlling possible by using these types of plans :

1. Corporate plans
2. Functional Plans
3. Short – term plans
4. Long – term plans
5. Standing plans

Question 5.
Give suggestions to make advertising ‘ more effective.
Answer:
Advertising is the preparation and communication of some message to the desired population through a medium/media,regarding a product, service or idea for some consideration.
Consider following term to making advertising more effective :

1. Maintenance of quality
2. Helps in making decision
3. Educating customers
4. Aids press
5. Encouragement to research
6. Higher standard of living
7. Creation of goodwill

Question 6.
Indian Government has made many laws to secure the interests of consumers. Discuss.
Answer:
Some important Consumer Protection Act made by Indian Government as discussed below-

1. The Prevention of Black Marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act., 1980-This Act prevents social and economic evil of black marketing. Any person engaged in black marketing can be detained under this Act.
2. The Essential Commodities Act, 1956-This Act provides for the control of production, supply, price and distribution of essential commodities, like wheat, rice, sugar, oil etc.
3. The Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1956-This Act lays down that standards of measurement must be set whenever required. Inspection of weights and measures should be undertaken as some traders find ways of weighing or measuring less or weighing the containers along with the goods.
4. The Competition Act, 2002-This Act has been substituted with the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act, 1969).
5. The Contract Act, 1982-This Act binds the people to fulfill their promises with respect to a valid contract.
6. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986-The object of this Act to protecting the consumers from anti trade practices making profit.

Question 7.
What is the importance of management ?
Answer:
If the administration of the organised sector is left to generalists, having no knowledge of management theory and practice, the activities of business and non-business organisations will be Jeopardised and there will be chaos all around. If a nation wants to be prosperious, it will have to produce efficient managers.

The following are the importance of efficient management:

1. Maximum results with minimum Resources
2. Realisation of Personal objectives,
3. Economic Growth
4. System in place of Rule of Thumb
5. Protection of Investor’s Interests.

Question 8.
“Planning is a mental process.” Explain.
Answer:
Let us examine some of the parts of definition of planning in regard “Planning is a mental process”.-
“Planning is deciding in advance what to do, how to do it, when to do it and who is to do it. It makes possible for things to occur which would not otherwise happen : we can also say that planning is the excercise of creative thinking in the solution of business problems. It involves the determination of what is to be done, how and where it is to be done, and who shall be responsible. We conclud the above fact that The act of thinking and determining a course of action, spelt out in detail, is called planning.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘training’ ? How does it differ from ‘education’ ?
Answer:
Training is the process of improving the attitudes, skills, performance and knout edge of the employees to make them enable for the job. Training is different from education on the basis of following grounds –

1. Education focuses on creating lifelong independent thinkers where as training focuses on skills sought after by employers.
2. Training has its roots in the guid system while education’s origins lie in universities.
3. Training uses textbooks and prescriptives methods.
4. In today’s universities highly specialized areas of training are being bassed off as education.

Question 10.
State the objectives of controlling.
Answer:
The purpose of managerial control is to ensure the desired level of efficiency in business. It helps the manager to achive the desired goals of business efficiently and effectively. The objectives of controlling are briefly stated below :

1. To develop suitable control techniques and to diagnose critical control points
2. To ensures that the performance is in accordance with the predetermined plans or targets, and to know the actual level of performance,
3. To find out deviations from the planned schedule and targets
4. To analysis deviation for knowing causes there of.
5. To consider and take whatever correchive measure are necessary and to redefine standards, if deviations are uncontrollable.

Question 11.
Distinguish between marketing and selling.
Answer:
Marketing and selling can be distinguished on the basis of the following points :
Marketing :

1. It creates demand, products goods and services, supplies the same and satisfies the consumers.
2. It includes creation of demand, pricing, promotion, sales and after sale services.
3. It aims at optimizing profit by optimizing consumers’ satisfaction.
4. It start much earlier than that of selling and it continues even after selling has come to an end.

Selling :

1. It just transfers the ownership of goods and services to the consumers.
2. It involves giving of goods and services for some consideration.
3. It’s main objective is to maximising profits by maximising sale.
4. It start when the goods and services are ready for exchanging; it comes to an end when the owner ship is passed on to the buyer.

Question 12.
What do you mean by levels of Management ?
Answer:
‘Levels of Management’ means different categories of managers having different quanta of authority form the lowest to the highest. There is no hard and fast rule about the number of levels in an enterprise. Small organisations have less levels and the number of levels, generally, increases as the size of organisation expands. It is also not necessary that the enterprises of the same size should have equal or identical levels.
From the study point or view the various managers may be grouped into the following thrice levels.

1. Top level management.
2. Middle level management.
3. Lower level management or super-visory or operational level management.

Question 13.
Write the different steps in the process of organising.
Answer:
Organising as a process includes the following steps:

1. Identification of Activities and their division : The process of organising starts with the identification of various activities. These activities are divided into various homogeneous units, which is called job and these jobs are assigned to the employees in a manageable-and systematic manner.
2. Grouping the activities into departments : Each Cluster of homogeneous activities is eammarked as a department and it gets a name according to the activities under taken there.
3. Assigning Duties : Once departments have been created, employees working in different departments get the work to be done by them. Each employees gets the work according to his/her specialisation and skills.
4. Establishing work Relationship : Under this step various work relation ships are established. These may be senior subordinate or lateral relationship.

Question 14.
What is meant by capital structure ?
Answer:
Capital structure is the composition or mix of different types of long term capital whether owned or borrowed. These may be in the form of share capital, debentures and long term loans from financial institutions. Like the plan of capitalisation, capital structure should be also planned. Share capital is an important component of the capital structure.

Question 15.
Distinguish between Centralisation und Decentralisation.
Answer:
Centralisation & Decentralisation : Centralisation & Decentralisation are relation terms. An organisation is said to be centralised when the authority relation to decesion making is remained with top level while it is called decentralised when these authorities are delegated.

In the words of Henri fayol, Everything which goes to increase the sub-ordinate’s role, is decentralisation, everything that goes to reduce, it is centralisation.

Question 16.
Discuss in brief, any three principles of Scientific Management.
Answer:
Principles of Management :

1. Division of work : This means assigning the work to a person for which he is best suited. This principle is equally applicable to all hands of work managerial as well as technical.
2. Unity of command : This means that sub-ordinates should be receive orders from one senior only. A sub-ordinate receiving orders from two or more bosses can satisfy none.
3. Discipline : Disceplines mean the observance of rules and regulations this principle emphasises the obedience on the part of the sub-ordinates.

Question 17.
Give three advantages of budgetary control.
Answer:
There are following Advantage of Budgetory control:

1. Availcibility of yardsticks : Under budgetory control, budgets are used as yardsticks for determining the legitimacy of the task performed.
2. Maximum Utilisation of Resources : Various resources, like men, material, money etc. Can be optimally utilised through budgetory control.
3. Improvement in Co-ordination : It improve Co-ordination in the concerned activities for example, sale and production activities are interrelated.

Question 18.
Why is entrepreneurship regarded as a creative activity ?
Answer:
There are following reasons of entrepreneurship regarded as creative ativities as

1. It is necessary to management efficiently for its organisational ability and development.
2. For starting any new production.
3. For modify the organisation.
4. It is necessary for entrepreneur to development and competite their competitors.

Question 19.
Planning is a continuous process. How ? Explain.
Answer:
Planning is a continuous process : Plans need continuous review with a view to take cognisance of nature of economics to keep an equilibrium in changing pattern of demand and supply involving co-ordination of different function of management and thus to keep the business in perfect running conduction. So planning is a dynamic & continuous concept or process.

Question 20.
What do you mean by Promotion mix ?
Answer:
Promotion Mix : Promotion is an important element of marketing mix. It helps in boosting sales through its sub components.
There are four major promotion mix are :

1. Advertising
2. Personal selling
3. Sales promotion
4. Publicity.

The purpose of each is to popularize the product and services and help in boosting sales.

Question 21.
Distinguish between formal and informal communications.
Answer:
Distinguish between formal & informal communication
Formal communication :

1. It takes place in the formal fashion.
2. Communication takes place among officials or with outsiders in their capacity.
3. Parties involved in communication have formal relations.
4. Message is more reliable as the communication take place officially.
5. It consist information technology like cellphones, computers etc.

Informal communication :

1. It take place unofficially.
2. Communication takes place among official or with outsiders in unofficial capacity.
3. Here they have social or friendly relations.
4. Members communicate in their personal capacity sometimes inaccurate information may be passed on.
5. it consist face-to-face communication.

Question 22.
State any two functions of top level management.
Answer:
Following are the two function of top level management :

1. The main function of top level management is that to explain the objectives; determination of policy and directing.
2. It’s function to determine short-term or long term objectives of organisation.

Question 23.
Explain any two elements of delegation of authority.
Answer:
Following are the two elements of delegation of authority.

1. Assignments of tasks and duties : In the process of delegation every superior has to define the jobs to be performed by his subordination.
2. Grant of Authority : Grant of authority implies giving the rights to subordinates to decide and act, to use necessary resources and represents the superior.

Question 24.
What is Recruitment ?
Answer:
Recruitment functions is concerned with discovering the sources of man power required and tapping these sources, i.e. attracting the potential, employees to offer services to the working organisation.

Question 25.
Enumerate any four non-monetary incentives.
Answer:
Four-non-monetary incentive :

1. Safe services
2. Opportunity to promotion,
3. Eligibility, praise
4. Justice
5. Top enrichment
6. job security.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are Long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them. Each question carries 5 marks. (4×5 = 20)

Question 26.
What is financial planning ? What are the element/factors which affect financial planning ?
Answer:
13. Financial planning-Financial planning means deciding in a advance how much to spend, on what to spend, according to the funds at your disposal. Walker and Baughn have defined financial planning in the following words-

“Financial planning pertains only to the function of finance and includes the determination of the firm’s financial objectives, formulating and promulgating financial policies and developing financial procedures.”
This definition is considered to be the best definition of financial planning. It includes three main aspects of financial planning-

1. Determination of financial objectives
2. Formulation of financial Policies
3. Development of financial procedures.

Factors Affecting Financial Planning Or, Elements Determining Financial Planning-A financial plan should be prepared very carefully because it has long-term impact on the working of an enterprise. Financial plan is affected by a number of factors. All these factors should be taken into consideration while preparing a financial plan-

(i) Nature of industry – The nature of industry of business plays a decisive role in drafting of financial plan. A capital-intensive industry like cement, paper or fertilizer requires more capital while a labour
intensive enterprise requires less amount of capital. In addition to it, the stability and regularity of income, future prospects of growth, the fluctuations in the demand of the product being manufactured by the firm, the extent of automation, etc., play a dominant role in determining the capital needs as well as capital structure.

(ii) Status of unit – This step includes the evaluation of increment characteristics of the unit like age, size, market area, scope and nature of the field, then reputation of management etc.

(iii) Flexibility – Flexibility and not the rigidity should be the main principle to be followed in the financing planning. If there is no flexibility in financial plans it would be very difficult later on, to carry on its expansion or diversification programmes due to lack of funds.

(iv) Plans for the future growth – Firms expect to grow larger in size as they grow old. So while undertaking current financing decisions, the factors of future growth should be suitable weighed. Capital structure must be of high grade securities.

(v) Capital structure – The capital structure of the company must be of high grade securities. It should be diversified but balanced. No permanant charge should be created on the capital of the industry. Fair rate of dividend should also be maintained.

(vi) Amount of risk – The risk involved in the business should also be discussed while planning the sources of funds. For business having more risks should issue ownership securities only while enterprise with stable earning expectation can take advantage of trading on equity.

(vii) Magnitude of external capital requirement – It would be a good policy for the industry to finance its expansion or diversification programmes through internal resources such as ploughing back of profits, reserves and surplus, etc., but short-term finances may be obtained from external sources by issuing redeemable preference shares or debentures if they are urgently needed.

(viii) Attitude of management – The attitude of management and management policies regarding trading on equity, capital earning ratio, the desire and extent to converse the control of enterprise, etc., affect in no small amount of pattern of financing.

(ix) Appraisal of alternative sources of finance – A study of the potential suppliers of fund has to be made and then Only a firm can expect to obtain funds suited to its advantage.

(x) Government policies and control – In preparing financial plan, the promoter should invariably take into account the governmental policies, financial controls and other monetary and fiscal policies of the government.

Question 27.
Explain various money market instruments.
Answer:
The main tools of money market have been described below-
(i) Treasury bills-These instruments are issued Reserve Bank of India. These are short-term securities with moturities of one year or less. These bills bear on interest. However they are issued at less than their face value and redeemed at for – the difference bring the interest on investment.

(ii) Interbank call money-This is a technique of lending and borrowing by banks on short-term basis. There may be situations when banks may come across shortage of money due to excessive withdraws or beary loan demands. In such cases banks can take loans from others banks as emergency solutions such loans are usually given for one day.

(iii) Commercial paper-This is a debt instrument issued by a company to meet its short-term financing needs. This is normally in the form of a promissory note. The issuing company promises to pay back the amount of the commercial paper within a stipulated period which is usually less than 270 days.

(iv) Certificates of deposit (CDs)-These were introduced in India in 1989 as a short-term unsecured promissary note, these are relatively low-risk debt instruments issued by banks. They mention that the named party has a specified sumon deposit, usually for a given period of time, at a fixed rate of interest, the period of CDs generally range from one month to five years. It implies that this sources in useful for short and medium-terms. Howevers, the permissible periodical range, at present, in India money market is from 7 to 365 days.

(v) Commercial bill/Trade bill – It is the bill of exchange drawn by the creditor on his/her debtors, extending credit for a short-term, it is a written order for a certain period to boy a specific sum for which the debtors has received value. After it has been signed by the debtors, it becomes a negotiable instruments. It can be discounted in a bank dr endorsed to a person against receipt of equivalent value or be kept till maturity and then getting the amount stated in it.

Question 28.
What do you mean by ‘Delegation’ ? Explain any four points which highlight the importance of delegation in an organisation.
Answer:
The need of delegation of authority arises when the volume is work of a manager increased and
be becomes over burdened. In order to reduce his work load, he follows a process by which some tasks within his Jurisdiction are assigned to his sub ordinates on a selective basis. For during the assigned work/ task, appropriate authority is also given. Such authority is known as delegation of authority.

Definitions : “Delegation is the process of a manager follow in dividing the work assigned to him so that he performs that part which only he, because of his unique organisational placement, can perform effectively and so that he can get others to help him what remains.”

Importance of delegation can be explained through the following points.

1. Relief to over burdned managers : As the business expand, seniors may become too heavily occupied. They may need the services of someone who can share their burden. They find the remedy by adapting the technique of delegation.
2. Improvement is the Quality and Quantity of works : When a single person has to do voluminous work, he does it at he cost of its quality and quantity. He can take care of both if he shares their work with someone. Delagation provides on opporunity to seniors for sharing their work with subordinates.
3. Source of Enhancing Job satisfactions : Delegation provides opportunities of Job-enlargement and Job-enrichment to sub-ordinates.
4. Seniors’ focus on more important Tasks : Seniors, generally, delegate the routine type of tasks to their delegates. This enables them to devote more time and energies to more important tasks.
5. Training ground for the sub-ordinates : Delegation provides opportunities to the sub-ordinates for doing higher level job.
6. Quick Decesion making : Since delegatees get limited tasks through delegation, they are able to take decisions quickly.
7. Effective co-ordination : Delegation stream lines the co-ordination and makes it more effective. All this makes co-ordination more effective.

Question 29.
“Money spent on advertisement is a social waste” Do you agree with this ?
Answer:
No ! the money spent on advertisement is not social waste, but it is an investment. Advertising plays a beneficial role for boosting up the sale, profit and reputation of the modern business. It provides benefits not only traders but to the customers and society also, which have been discussed below:

1. Increase Sales : The mein objective of advertisement is to increase sales production on a large scale, makes it necessary to sell on a large scale. Advertisement helps to create a wide base to facilities sales on large scale.
2. Steady demand : In the absence of personal touch between the buyers and the sellers, it is necessary to keep customers constantly aware and informed of the product so that there could be a steady demand for the products. This continuous information is provided through advertisement.
3. Helps in making decesion : Customers get the required information types of product available in the market to satisfy their demand their relative advantage or disadvantages, price and utility, etc. On the basis of this information a customer finds it easy to arrive at any decision. Selection becomes essay for him.
4. Educating customers : Advertisement educate people about various products and their diverse uses. It tells consumers about better ways of living there by increasing living standards.
5. Provide Employment : Advertisement is a source of employment for many persons. Making advertising copies dicussion with sponsors, printing the Advertisement etc require the services of many persons.
6. Higher standard of living : It helps to raise the standard of living by educating people, by providing them more job opportunities and facilitating in production on a large scale.

Question 30.
What do you mean by staffing is it a part of Human Resource Management ? Clarify.
Answer:
Staffing : ‘Staffing’is the term used when recruitment and selection, training and development, compensation and relesstion, etc. functions are performed for appointing and retaining managers. According to koontz, O’ Donnell and Weihrich “Staffing is the executive function which involves the recruitment, selection, compensating, training, promotions and retirement of subordinate managers.”

Yes ! It is a part of human resource management. Human resource management is a broad concept. “HRM is the art of processing, developing and maintaining suitable persons to acheive the goals of an organisation in on effective way. It is the way of optimising human competence at the work place. So that the goals of an organisation are accomplished effectively.” According to Ivancevich and Glueck, “HRM is concerned with the most effective use of people to acheive organisational and individuals goals. It is a way of managing people at work, so that they give their best to the organisation.”

Question 31.
“Co-ordination is the essence of management” Explain this statement.
Answer:
Co-ordination is the essence of management : Co-ordination is required at every step of management. It exist with each function of management planning presupposes application of the princeiples of Co-ordination for achieving objective of the fullness, managers have to ensure proper Co¬ordination among various persons and departments.

While establishing the organisational structure Co – ordination among varions positions must be given due consideration. The absence of Co-ordination weakens the effect of authority, responsibility relationship in the organisational structure. Like planning and organizing

Co-ordination has a relevance to other functions of management also. The importance of directing components, viz., communication leadership motivation and supervision increase if the Co – ordination principles have been interwoven with them. Similarly, Co-ordination enhances the importance of staffing & controlling.

Question 32.
Why is delegation necessary for an effective organisation.
Answer:
Delegation of authority is an important function of organisation, it helps in improving the managerial effectiveness. It is essential for effective organisation due to following reasons :

1. Relief to overburdened managers : As the business expand, seniors may become too heaving occupied. They may need the services of someone who can share their burden. They by the remedy by adopting the technique of delegation.
2. Improving in the quality & Quantity of work : When a single person has to do locuminous work the does it at the cost of its quality and quantity. He can take care of both if he shares it with someone. Delegation provides an opportunity to seniors for sharing their work with subordinates.
3. Sources of Enhancing job satisfaction : Delegation provides opportunities of job enlargement and job enrichment to sub-ordinates get more job satisfaction when they get additional challenging assignments.
4. Quick Decision making : Delegation also implies that delegatees will get the authority of decesions making in prescribed field. Since delegates get limited take through delegation they are able to take decesion quickly.
5. Facilitation of organisational Growth : The delegates get an exposure of doing higher level jobs. When organisation expands, the delegatees may he asked to take up the higher level positions resulting due to the expansion of the organisation.
6. Effective Co-ordination : Delegation stream lines the co-ordination and make it more effective.

Question 33.
Define Financial Management and discuss its objectives.
Answer:
Financial Management: If is the process of decision making and implementing it in all respects for the inflows and outflows of funds.
According to weston & Brighan, Financial management is an area of financial decision making, harmonising individuals motive and enterprise goals.
Objective of Financial Management :

(i) Profit Maximisation : Finance manager tries to augment the earning of profit. This may be done by procuring the optimum amount of finance by creating minimum liability on the company and by utilising the finance in the best possible way.

(ii) Wealth Maximisation : Along with the objective of profit maximisation, importance to wealth maximisation should also be attached. Both the objective should be considered side-by-side. In fact, wealth maximisation is increasingly being accepted as the goal of finance function.

Wealth of the company = No. of share X market price pershare
Wealth maximisation is a better goal of finance function since it represents the long term interest of shareholders.

Bihar Board 12th Biology Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 1 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Total Marks : 70

Instructions for the candidates:

1. Candidates are required to give answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as for as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections: Section – A and Section – B
6. In Section – A, there are 35 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with blue/black ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/ Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet otherwise result will be treated as invalid.
7. In Section – B, there are Non-objective type questions. There are 18 Short answer type questions, out of which any 10 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 6 long answer type questions, out of which any 3 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 35 have four options provided out of which only one is correct. You have to mark your selected option on the OMR-Sheet. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (1 × 35 = 35)

Question 1.
Scientific/Botanical name of Pear is
(a) Pyrus communis
(b) Pisum sativum
(c) Pyrus malus
(d) None of them
Answer:
(a) Pyrus communis

Question 2.
Reproduction by Budding occurs in which of the followings:
(a) Yeast
(b) Hydra
(c) Both A and B
(d) Amoeba
Answer:
(c) Both A and B

Question 3.
Vegetative propagation is carried out by means of Rhizome in
(a) Potato
(b) Ginger
(c) Turmeric
(d) B and C both
Answer:
(d) B and C both

Question 4.
Which among the following is an example of Bulb?
(a) Ginger
(b) Potato
(c) Onion
(d) Radish
Answer:
(c) Onion

Question 5.
Which type of Endosperm is found in Angiosperms?
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Triploid

Question 6.
In which of the followings Pollinia are found?
(a) Calotropis
(b) Pea
(c) Gram
(d) Grass
Answer:
(a) Calotropis

Question 7.
Which among the following is an example of Parthenocarpic fruit?
(a) Apple
(b) Pear
(c) Banana
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Banana

Question 8.
Mammary glands are modified
(a) Endocrine gland
(b) Lachrymal gland
(c) Sweat gland
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Sweat gland

Question 9.
Hoemochorial Placenta is found in which among the followings?
(a) Horse
(b) Human being
(c) Rabbit
(d) Dog
Answer:
(b) Human being

Question 10.
The test which is used for study of genetic disorders in a Foetus is called as
(a) Angiogram
(b) Laparoscopy
(c) Amniocentesis
(d) Clotting test
Answer:
(c) Amniocentesis

Question 11.
Cuscuta is
(a) Epiphytes
(b) Root Parasite
(c) Total stem parasite
(d) Both B and C
Answer:
(c) Total stem parasite

Question 12.
Which among the following is an example of Hydrophytes?
(a) Lotus
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Trapa
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 13.
Mutations can be induced by
(a) Gamma radiation
(b) Infra-red radiation
(c) Ethylene
(d) IAA
Answer:
(a) Gamma radiation

Question 14.
How many genes are responsible for ABO system of blood group in humans?
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 15.
What is the distance between consecutive two nucleotides of B-DNA?
(a) 2.7 A
(b) 3.4 A
(c) 3.32 A
(d) 3.7A
Answer:
(b) 3.4 A

Question 16.
Which among the following is termination codon?
(a) AUG
(b) GUG
(c) UAA
(d) AAA.
Answer:
(c) UAA

Question 17.
The characteristic feature of DNA double helix is
(a) Complementary & anti-parallel
(b) Always circular
(c) Parallel
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Complementary & anti-parallel

Question 18.
Which among the following is vestigial organs in Man?
(a) Nictitating membrane
(b) Coccyx
(c) Both A and B
(d) Pelvic
Answer:
(c) Both A and B

Question 19.
The bird Archaeopteryx was found in which period?
(a) Triassic
(b) Jurassic
(c) Cretaceous
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Triassic

Question 20.
The study of fossils is called as
(a) Entomology
(b) Paleontology
(c) Analogy
(d) Homology
Answer:
(b) Paleontology

Question 21.
Which among the following sequence defines Ribonucleotide?
(a) Ribose sugar + Nitrogenous base
(b) Ribose sugar + Protein
(c) Ribose sugar + Phosphoric acid
(d) Ribonucleoside + Phosphate group
Answer:
(d) Ribonucleoside + Phosphate group

Question 22.
Name the organelle which helps in translation.
(a) Lysosome
(b) Ribosome
(c) Spliciosome
(d) Exone
Answer:
(b) Ribosome

Question 23.
Humoral immunity is related to which among the followings?
(a) A-cells
(b) B-cells
(c) T-cells
(d) K-cells
Answer:
(b) B-cells

Question 24.
Which among the following is Causative organism of Typhoid disease:
(a) Bacillus anthracis
(b) Plasmodium vivax
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Salmonella typhi

Question 25.
What is common to Earthworm, Mushroom, Dung beetle and Soil mites? They all are
(a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
(c) Omnivores
(d) Detritivores
Answer:
(d) Detritivores

Question 26.
Gir forest is famous for
(a) Giraffe
(b) Cheetah
(c) Deer
(d) Lion
Answer:
(b) Cheetah

Question 27.
What are the types of food chains in an Ecosystem?
(a) Grazing
(b) Detritus
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both A and B

Question 28.
Which among the following animals become extinct?
(a) White peacock
(b) Dodo
(c) Deer
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(b) Dodo

Question 29.
Which among the following is Xerophytic plant?
(a) Trapa
(b) Casuarina
(c) Opuntia
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(c) Opuntia

Question 30.
An example of a natural gene cloning vector is-
(a) Circular plasmid
(b) Linear plasmid
(c) Ti-plasmid
(d) Virion
Answer:
(c) Ti-plasmid

Question 31.
Acid rain occurs due to
(a) CO and CO₂
(b) NO₂ and SO₂
(c) CO₂ and NO₂
(d) N₂ and NO₂
Answer:
(b) NO₂ and SO₂

Question 32.
Sharbati Sonora and Kalyan Sona are improved varieties of which among the followings?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Pulses
Answer:
(b) Wheat

Question 33.
Which bacteria transform milk into curd?
(a) Clostridium
(b) Micrococcus
(c) Lactobacillus
(d) Streptococcus
Answer:
(c) Lactobacillus

Question 34.
Somatic embryogenesis can be done by
(a) Cell culture
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Protoplast culture
(d) Both B and C
Answer:
(b) Tissue culture

Question 35.
RNAi is a method used to control
(a) Ball worms
(b) Nematodes
(c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(b) Nematodes

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

In this section, there are 18 short answer type question (each carries 2 marks) out of which answers any ten (10) questions. (10 x 2 = 20)

Question 1.
What do you mean by Global Warming? Explain.
Answer:
If there is excess increase in concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, then it would retain more and more of the infra-red radiation resulting in an enhanced greenhouse effect. Consequently, there will be increase in the global mean temperature which is referred to as Global Warming. It will cause melting of polar ice cap and glaciers. It also causes rise in sea level.

Question 2.
Describe the types of Biodiversity.
Answer:
Following are the types of Biodiversity :

1. Genetic diversity.
2. Species diversity
3. Ecological diversity.

Question 3.
Write an account of four benefits of transgenic animals for human welfare.
Answer:
Following are the benefits of transgenic animals :

1. Transgenic animals are routinely used in the laboratory as models in biomedical research.
2. Transgenic cow produces insulin in milk.
3. Transgenic sheep produces more wool.
4. Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated and how they affect the normal functioning of the body.

Question 4.
What is Binary fission ? Give suitable examples. Show it with the help of diagram.
Answer:
Binary fission reproduction takes place in Amoeba. Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and the nucleus divides by mitosis. A constriction appears in the middle and the amoeba gets divided into two daughter amoeba.Binary fission takeks place under favourable conditions.

Question 5.
What are Initiation codons ? Name them.
Answer:
AUG is in itiation codon. AUG stands for methionine, polypeptide chain begins with methionine

Question 6.
What do you understand by Tissue Culture? Illustrate its any two advantages.
Answer:
Plant tissue culture is the maintenance and growth of plant cells, tissues and organs on a suitable culture medium in vitor (in a container e.g., test tube).
Advantages of tissue culture: (i) Tissue culture helps to produce more copies of same plant with desired characters.
(i) It produces some clonal variations.

Question 7.
Draw the sketches of a Zoospore and a Conidium.
Answer:

Question 8.
Mention advantages of self pollination.
Answer:
Advantages :

1. It provides greater chances for pollination of flower.
2. It is economical and pollen grains are not to be produced in enormous quantities to ensure pollination.
3. There is no necessity of flower to be showy and of bright colour to attract pollinators.
4. It preserves the desired and parental charracters of plants.

Question 9.
What are Communicable diseases in human beings ? Describe with suitable examples.
Answer:
Such diseases which arise directly or indirectly through infection of one to another person.
Ex: Tuberculosis, Cholera, Malaria, AIDS, etc.

Question 10.
Write about poultry farm management in brief.
Answer:
It deals with the management and rearing of flows (chickens) ducks, turkeys and pleasants for the production of eggs and meats.
Steps of proper management of poultry farm :

1. Selection of disease free and suitable breeds.
2. Provision of moderate climatic conditions during summer and winter.
3. Provision of nutritions used and water.
4. Providing comfortable, well ventilated, dry and well illuminated poultry house.
5. Regular check up of poultry birds for diagnosis and treatment.

Question 11.
Write expanded form of the following:
(A) G.M.O.
(B) S.T.D.
(C) A.M.P.
(D) V.N.T.R.
Answer:
(A) G.M.O: Genetically Modified Organism.
(B) S.T.D: Sexually Transmitted disease.
(C) A.M.P.: Adenosine Mono Phosphate.
(D) V.N.T.R.: Variable Number Tandem Repeat.

Question 12.
Distinguish between Missing link and Connecting link.
Answer:
Missing link: It is a hypothetical extinct creature halfway in the evolutionary line between modern human beings and their anthropoid progenitors. Connecting link : Connecting link is an organism having characteristics of two different group of organisms, Ex : Peripatus is a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda.

Question 13.
Differentiate between :
(A) Ovipary and Vivipary
(B) Oestrius cycle and Menstrual cycle.
Answer:
(A) Ovipary: These are egg laying organisms, Ex: Fish, Frog etc.
Vivipary : Here development of embryo inside the body of parent takes place, leading to live birth of young ones. Ex. Man, Cow , etc.
(B) Oestrius Cycle and Menstrual Cycle : The females of placental mammals exhibits cyclical changes in the activities of ovaries and accessory ducts as well as hormones during the reproductive phase. However in non – primate mammals like cows, sheep, rats, deers, tiger etc, such cyclical changes occurs during reproduction are called oestrius cycle whereas in primates, e.g. monkeys, apes, & humans it is called menstrual cycle.

Question 14.
Write the scientific name of causal organism of Malaria and Elephantiasis diseasse of human being.
Answer:
(i) Malaria : Plasmodium vivax.
(ii) Elephantiasis : Wuchereria bancrafti

Question 15.
What do you understand by noise pollution. Describe its various causes.
Answer:
Noise pollution is the propagation of noise with harmful impact on the activity of human life.
Sources : Washing Machine, Cooler, Vacuum Cleaner etc.

Question 16.
Mention any two applications of GelElectrophoresis in Biotechnology.
Answer:
Applications :
(i) DNA can be separated by Gel electrophoreny.
(ii) Electrophoeny is useful in both the creation and production of vaccines.

Question 17.
Match column A with B:
Answer:

Question 18.
Show diagrammatic representation of clover leaf model of t-RNA molecule and name the four arms.
Answer:

Long Answer Type Questions

There are 6 long answers type question (each carrying 05 marks) out of which answers any three questions. (5 x 3 = 15)

Question 19.
What do you understand by Bio-fertilizer? What are the benefits soil gets from them? Name any two such bio-fertilizers.
Answer:
Bio-fertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of bio-fertilisers are microbes (eg. Bacteria, Fungi and Cyano-bacteria). The nodules on the roots of legunminous plants formed by the symbiotic association of Rhizobium, fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plants as nutrient. Other bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in the soil (eg. Azospirillum and Azotobacter), thus enriching the nitrogen content of the soil.

Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations with plants (mycohiza). The fungi symbiont in these association absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plants. Plants having such associations show other benefits also, such as resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity and drought and an overall increase in plant growth and development.

Cyano-bacteria are autotrophic microbes which can fix atmospheric nitrogen, eg. Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc. In paddy fields, Cyano-batetiar serve as an important bio-fertiliser. Blue green algae also add organic matter to the soil and increases its fertility. Currently, in our country, a number of fertilisers are available commercially in the market and farmers use these regularly in their fields to replenish soil nutrients and to reduce dependence on chemical fertilisers.

Question 20.
Show food-chain in a fresh water pond and illustrate it with the help of diagram.
Answer:

(saprophytic bacteria and fungi)

Question 21.
What do you understand by Mutation? What are their main types and mention its significance in brief.
Answer:
Mutation is defined as change in gene which is heritable.
The abrupt changes may take place in chromosomes, then it is called chromosomal mutation.

Types of Mutation:

1. Somatic mutation: It occurs in somatic cells and it is non-heritable.
2. Germinal mutation: It is found in reproductive cells and is heritable.
3. Spontaneous mutation: Mutation occuring in nature is called spontaneous mutation.
4. Induced mutation: When mutation is produced by mutagenic chemicals or radiations.

Significance:
Role of Mutation in Evolution: Evolution is a slow and continuous process for evolution. The basic necessity is variation. The variation among plants and animals are brought about by mutation.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Cry-protein? It is obtained from which organism? Describe its various uses.
Answer:
Cry proteins are crystalline toxins which are encoded by cry genes. It is obtained by Bacillus touring – genesis bacteria. The bacterium contains these proteins in their inactive form. When the inactive toxin protein is ingested by the insect it gets activated by the alkaline pH of the gut.

Uses of Cry-protein :

1. It protects cotton plants from ball-worms.
2. Many transgenic crops are produced.

Question 23.
What do you mean by Foetal Membrane? Mention its types and explain it in brief.
Answer:
The Foetal membranes are membranes associated with the developing Foetus. The two chorio-amniotic membranes are the amnion and the Chorion which make the amniotic sac surrounds and protects the foetus. The other foetal membranes are the allantois and the secondary umbilical vesicle.

Types of Foetal Membrane :

1. Amnion: The Amnion is a transparent greyish membrane which lines the chorian. It comes to the foetal surface of the placenta and the umbilical cord.
2. Chorion: The chorion is a double-layered membrane formed by the trophoblast and the extraembryonic mesoderm which eventually give rise to foetal part of the placenta.

Question 24.
Write short notes on any two of the following :
(a) Fisheries
(b) Ribosome
(c) Infertility
(d) Red data book.
Answer:
(a) Fisheries: Fisheries is a kind of industry which is associated with fish and other aquatic animals (crab, prawn), and for thier production, processing and marketing management. The revolution in the field of increased production of fishes is called “Blue Revolution.’

(b) Ribosome: Ribosomes are found on the endoplasmic reticulum or scattered in the cytoplasm. These vary from 150-200 A° and are made of nucleo-protein. These are found as free granules or in groups. When these are found in granules, they are called poly-ribosome.

(c) Infertility: Inability to conceive or produce children even after two years of unprotected sexual co-habitation is called infertility.

(d) Red-data book: Red-data book is a catalogue of taxa that are facing the risk of extinction. Its main aim is to give information about the urgency and scale of conservation problem to the public and policymakers.

Bihar Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 21 तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय Textbook Questions and Answers, Additional Important Questions, Notes.

BSEB Bihar Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 21 तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय

Bihar Board Class 11 Biology तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय Text Book Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित संरचनाओं का संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए –
(अ) मस्तिष्क
(ब) नेत्र
(स) कर्ण।
उत्तर:
(अ) मानव मस्तिष्क की रचना (Structure of Human Brain):
मनुष्य में मस्तिष्क कपाल या ऊनियम (cranium) के भीतर सुरक्षित रहता है। मस्तिष्क तीन आवरणों से ढका रहता है जिन्हें मस्तिष्कावरण (meninges) कहते हैं। ये मस्तिष्कावरण है –

1. दृढ़तानिका (Duramater):
श्वेत तन्तुमय ऊतक की बनी होती है।

2. जालतानिका (Arachnoid mater):
यह मध्य की पर्त है।

चित्र – मानव मस्तिष्क की रचना – खड़ी काट में।

3. मृदुतानिका (Piamater):
यह सबसे भीतरी आवरण है, जो मस्तिष्क के सम्पर्क में रहता है। इस पर्त में रुधिर वाहिनियों का जाल बिछा रहता है। इन झिल्लियों के बीच एक तरल भरा रहता है जिसे सेरेब्रोस्पाइनल तरल (cerebrospinal fluid) कहते हैं। यह द्रव पोषण, श्वसन तथा उत्सर्जन में सहायक है। यह बाहरी आधातों से कोमल मस्तिष्क की सुरक्षा भी करता है।

मस्तिष्क को तीन भागों में बाँटा जा सकता है –

1. अग्रमस्तिष्क (Fore brain)
2. मध्य-मस्तिष्क (Mid brain)
3. पश्चमस्तिष्क (Hind brain)

1. अग्रमस्तिष्क या प्रोसेनसिफैलॉन (Fore brain or Prosencephalon):

अग्र मस्तिष्क के तीन भाग होते हैं –

1. घ्राण भाग
2. सेरेब्रम तथा
3. डाइएनसिफैलॉन।

(i) मनुष्य में घ्राण भाग अवशेषी होता है तथा अग्रमस्तिष्क का मुख्य भाग सेरिब्रम होता है।

(ii) प्रमस्तिष्क या सेरेब्रम (Cerebrum):
मस्तिष्क का लगभग 2/3 भाग प्रमस्तिष्क होता है। प्रमस्तिष्क दो पालियों में बँटा होता है जिन्हें प्रमस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध (cerebral hemispheres) कहते हैं। दोनों प्रमस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध तन्त्रिका तन्तुओं की एक पट्टी द्वारा जुड़े रहते हैं जिसे कॉर्पस कैलोसम (corpus callosum) कहते हैं। प्रमस्तिष्क में तन्त्रिका कोशिकाएँ इस प्रकार स्थित होती हैं कि इनके कोशिकाकाय बाहर की ओर स्थित होते हैं।

इस भाग को प्रमस्तिष्क वल्कुट (cerebral cortex) कहते हैं भीतर की ओर तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं पर अक्षतन्तु (axon) स्थित होते हैं। यह भाग प्रमस्तिष्क मध्यांश (cerebral medulla) कहलाता है। बाहरी भाग धूसर (ग्रे) रंग का होता है। इसे धूसर द्रव्य (grey matter) कहते हैं। भीतरी भाग श्वेत-(सफेद) रंग का होता है। इसे श्वेत द्रव्य (white matter) कहते हैं।

प्रमस्तिष्क की पृष्ठ सतह में तन्त्रिका तन्तुओं की अत्यधिक संख्या होने के कारण यह सतह अत्यधिक मोटी व वलनों वाली (folded) हो जाती है। इस सतह को नियोपैलियम (neopallium) कहते हैं। नियोपैलियम में उभरे हुए भागों को उभार या गायराई (gyri) तथा बीच के दबे भाग को खाँच या सल्काई (sulci) कहते हैं।

तीन गहरी दरारें प्रत्येक प्रमस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध को चार मुख्य पालियों में बाँट देती हैं। इन्हें फ्रन्टल पालि (frontal lobe), पैराइटल पालि (parietal lobe), टैम्पोरल पालि (temporal lobe) तथा ऑक्सीपीटल पालि (occipital lobe) कहते हैं। प्रमस्तिष्क की गुहाओं को पार्श्व मस्तिष्क गुहा या पैरासील (paracoel or lateral ventricles) कहते हैं।

(iii) अग्रमस्तिष्क ‘पश्च या डाइएनसिफैलॉन (Diencephalon):
यह अग्रमस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है। इसका पृष्ठ भाग पतला होता है तथा अधर भाग मोटा होता है जिसे हाइपोथैलैमस (hypothalamus) कहते हैं। हाइपोथैलेमस की अधर सतह पर इन्फन्डीबुलम (infundibulum) से जुड़ी पीयूष ग्रन्थि होती है।

डाइएनसिफैलॉन की पृष्ठ सतह पर पीनियल काय (pineal body) तथा अग्र रक्त जालक, (anterior choroid plexus) पाया जाता है। डाइएनसिफैलॉन की गुहा तृतीय निलय (third ventricle) या डायोसील (diocoel) होती है, यह पार्श्व गुहाओं से मोनरो के छिद्र (foramen of Monaro) द्वारा जुड़ी रहती है।

II. मध्यमस्तिष्क या मीसेनसिफैलॉन (Mid Brain or Mesencephalon):
यह भाग स्तनियों में बहुत अधिक विकसित नहीं होता है। इसका पृष्ठ भाग चार दृक् पालियों के रूप में होता है, जिन्हें कॉर्पोरा क्याड्रिजेमिना (corpora quadrigemina) कहते हैं। मध्यमस्तिष्क के पार्श्व व अधर भाग में तन्त्रिका ऊतक की पट्टियाँ होती हैं जिन्हें क्रूरा सेरेब्राई (crura cerebri) कहते हैं। ये पश्चमस्तिष्क को अग्रमस्तिष्क से जोड़ने का कार्य करती हैं। यहाँ दृक् तन्त्रिकाएँ एक-दूसरे को क्रॉस करके, ऑप्टिक कियाज्मा (optic chiasma) बनाती है। मध्यमस्तिष्क की सँकरी गुहा को आइटर (iter) कहते हैं, जो तृतीय निलय को चतुर्थ निलय (fourth ventricle) से जोड़ती हैं।

III. पश्चमस्तिष्क या रॉम्बेनसिफैलॉन (Hind brain or Rhombencephalon):
यह मस्तिष्क का पश्च भाग है। इसे मस्तिष्क वृन्त (brain stalk) भी कहते हैं। पश्च मस्तिष्क के दो भाग होते हैं –

(i) अनुमस्तिष्क (cerebellum)
(ii) मस्तिष्क पुच्छ या मेडुला ऑब्लांगेटा (medulla oblongata)।

(i) अनुमस्तिष्क (Cerebellum):
यह प्रमस्तिष्क के पिछले भाग से सटा रहता है। अनुमस्तिष्क दो पार्श्व गोला? (lateral hemispheres) का बना होता है। अनुमस्तिष्क में बाहरी धूसर द्रव्य तथा आन्तरिक श्वेत द्रव्य होता है। श्वेत द्रव्य में स्थान-स्थान पर धूसर. द्रव्य प्रवेश करके वृक्ष की शाखाओं जैसी रचना बनाता है। इसे प्राणवृक्ष या आरबर विटी (arbor vitae) कहते हैं। अनुमस्तिष्क में गुहा अनुपस्थित होती है। अनुमस्तिष्क के अधर भाग में श्वेत द्रव्य की एक पट्टी होती है जिसे पोंस वेरोली (pons varolli) कहते हैं।

(ii) मस्तिष्क पुच्छ या मेडुला ऑब्लांगेटा (Medulla Oblongata):
यह मस्तिष्क का सबसे पिछला भाग है जो आगे मेरुरज्जु के रूप में कपाल गुहा से बाहर निकलता है। मेडुला की पृष्ठ भित्ति पर पश्च रक्त जालक (posterior choroid plexus) स्थित होता है। मेडुला की गुहा को चतुर्थ निलय या मेटासील (fourth ventricle or metacoel) कहते हैं।

(ब) नेत्र की संरचना (Structure of Eye):
मनुष्य में एक जोड़ी नेत्र चेहरे पर सामने की ओर नेत्र कपाल के नेत्र कोटर (eye orbit) में स्थित होते हैं। प्रत्येक नेत्र एक तरल से भरे गोलक के रूप में होता है। नेत्र गोलक का 4/5 भाग नेत्र कोटर में और लंगभग 1/5 भाग नेत्र कोटर के बाहर स्थित होता है। नेत्र गोलक की भित्ति तीन स्तरों से बनी होती है। सबसे बाहरी दृढ़पटल (sclera), मध्य रक्तकपटल (choroid) तथा भीतरी दृष्टिपटल (retina) है।

1. दृढ़पटल या स्क्ले रोटिक (Sclera or Sclerotic):
यह तन्तुमय संयोजी ऊतक का बना सबसे बाहरी स्तर है। इसका वह भाग जो नेत्र कोटर से बाहर होता है, पारदर्शी होता है तथा इसे कॉर्निया (cornea) कहते हैं।

चित्र – मानव नेत्र की रचना-खड़ी काट में।

2. रक्तकपटल या कोरॉइड (Choroid):
यह नेत्र गोलक की भित्ति का मध्य स्तर है। रक्तकपटल संयोजी ऊतक का बना स्तर है जिसमें रुधिर केशिकाओं का घना जाल होता है। रक्तकपटल में रंगायुक्त कोशिकाएँ होती हैं, जिस कारण नेत्र का रंग काला, भूरा, सुनहरा या नीला दिखाई देता है। रक्तकपटल का वह भाग जो कॉर्निया के नीचे होता है, थोड़ी पीछे हटकर एक पेशीय पर्दे जैसी रचना (diaphragm like) बनाता है जिसे आइरिस या उपतारा (iris) कहते हैं।

आइरिस अरीय (radial) तथा वर्तुल पेशियों (circular muscles) का बना होता है। आइरिस के मध्य में एक गोल छिद्र होता है। जिसे तारा या पुतली (pupil) कहते हैं। अरीय पेशियाँ तारे के छिद्र को बड़ा करती है; अतः इन्हें प्रसारी पेशियाँ (dilatory muscles) कहते हैं। वर्तुल पेशियाँ तारे के छिद्र को छोटा या संकुचित करती हैं; अतः इन्हें स्फिक्टर (अवरोधिनी) पेशियाँ (sphincter muscles) कहते हैं। तारा नेत्र में प्रवेश करने वाले प्रकाश की मात्रा को नियन्त्रित करता है।

चित्र – आइरिस व तारे की रचना

आइरिस के आधार पर रक्तपटल अत्यधिक मोटा व पेशीयुक्त होकर सीलियरी काय (ciliary body) बनाता है।

3. दृष्टिपटल या रेटिना (Retina):
यह नेत्र भित्ति का सबसे भीतरी प्रकाश संवेदी (light sensitive) स्तर है। रेटिना में रक्तकपटल की ओर एक पतला वर्णक स्तर (pigmented layer) तथा भीतर की ओर तन्त्रिका संवेदी स्तर होता है।

तन्त्रिका संवेदी. स्तर (neurosensory layer) प्रकाश के लिए संवेदनशील होता है। यह निम्नलिखित प्रकार का पर्तों से बना होता है –

(i) दृष्टि शलाकाओं एवं शंकुओं का स्तर (Layer of Rods and Cones):
शलाकाओं में दृष्टि पर्पल (visual purple) वर्णक रोडोप्सिन (Rhodopsin) तथा शंकुओं में दृष्टि वॉयलेट (visual violet) वर्णक आयोडोप्सिन (iodopsin) पाए जाते हैं। शलाकाएँ प्रकाश व अन्धकार में भेद करती हैं, जबकि शंकु रंगों का ज्ञान कराते हैं।

(ii) ध्रुवीय न्यूरॉन का स्तर (Layer of Bipolar Neurons):
इसकी तन्त्रिका कोशिकाएँ दृष्टि शलाकाओं एवं शंकुओं के स्तर को गुच्छकीयं कोशिकाओं के स्तर से जोड़ती हैं।

(iii) गुच्छकीय कोशिकाओं का स्तर (Layer of Ganglionic Cells):
इसकी कोशिकाओं के एक्सॉन तन्तु मिलकर दृक् तन्त्रिका (optic nerve) बनाते हैं। दृक् तन्त्रिका जिस स्थान से रेटिना से निकलती है, उसे अन्ध बिन्दु (blind spot) कहते हैं, इस स्थान पर प्रतिबिम्ब का निर्माण नहीं होता है।

नेत्र की मध्य अनुलम्ब् अक्ष (optical axis) पर स्थित रेटिना के मध्य भाग को मध्य क्षेत्र (area centralis) कहते हैं। इस भाग को पीत बिन्दु (yellow spot) या मैकुला ल्यूटिया (macula lutea) भी कहते हैं। यहाँ उपस्थित एक छोटे से गड्ढे को फोविया सेन्ट्रेलिस (fovea centralis) कहते हैं। इस स्थान पर सबसे स्पष्ट प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है।

लेन्स (lens):
यह उभयोत्तल (biconvex), पारदर्शी, रंगहीन व लचीला होता है। यह आइरिस के ठीक पीछे स्थित होता है। लेन्स साधक स्नायु (suspensory ligament) द्वारा सीलियरी काय (ciliary body) से जुड़ा होता है। तेजो वेश्म या ऐक्वस वेश्म (aqueous chamber) कॉर्निया तथा लेन्स के बीच का स्थान होता है।

इसमें जलीय तरल तेजोजल या ऐक्वस ह्यमर (aqueous humor) भरा रहता काचाभ वेश्म या विट्रियस वेश्म (vitreous chamber) रेटिना व लेन्स के बीच का स्थान है। इसमें जैली सदृश काचाभ जल यो विट्रियस हमर (vitreous humor) भरा रहता है। जलीय तेजोजल तथा जैली सदृश काचाभ जल सीलियरी काय द्वारा स्रावित होते हैं। ये नेत्र की गुहा में निश्चित दबाव बनाए रखते हैं जिससे दृष्टिपटल व अन्य नेत्रपटल यथास्थान बने रहें।

पलक (Eye Lids):
नेत्र कोटर के ऊपरी व निचले भागों में त्वचा के पेशीयुक्त भंज (folds) पलकों का निर्माण करते हैं। दोनों पलके सचल होती हैं तथा नेत्र गोलक के खुले भाग को ढक सकती हैं। पलकों की भीतरी उपचर्म (epidermis) पारदर्शी होकर कॉर्निया के साथ समेकित हो जाती है। इसे नेत्र श्लेष्मा या कन्जंक्टिवा (conjunctiva) कहते हैं। पलकों पर बरौनियाँ (eye lashes) पाई जाती है। खरगोश तथा अन्य स्तनियों में एक तीसरी पलक होती है, जिसे निमेषक पटल (nictitating membrane) कहते हैं। यह पलक नेत्रों की सुरक्षा का कार्य करती है। मनुष्य में यह अवशेषी होती है।

अश्रु ग्रन्थियाँ (Lacrimal Glands or Tear Glands):
प्रत्येक नेत्र के बाहरी ऊपरी कोने पर तीन अश्रु ग्रन्थियाँ स्थित ‘होती हैं। इनका स्राव कॉर्निया व कन्जंक्टिवा को नम तथा स्वच्छ बनाए रखता है। नेत्र के भीतरी कोण पर एक अश्रु नलिका (lachrymal duct) होती है जो फालतू स्राव को नासा वेश्म में पहुँचा देती है। जन्म के चार माह पश्चात् मानव शिशु में अश्रु ग्रन्थियाँ सक्रिय होती हैं।

मीबोमियन ग्रन्थियाँ (Meibomian glands):
ये पलकों में स्थित होती हैं तथा एक तैलीय पदार्थ का स्रावण करती हैं। यह तैलीय पदार्थ कॉर्निया पर फैलकर अश्रु ग्रन्थियों के स्रावण को पूरी कॉर्निया पर फैलाता है।

(स) कर्ण की संरचना (Structure of Ear):
कर्ण श्रवण तथा स्थैतिक सन्तुलन (hearing and equilibrium) का अंग है।
प्रत्येक कर्ण के तीन भाग होते हैं –

(i) बाह्य कर्ण
(ii) मध्य कर्ण तथा
(iii) अन्त:कर्ण।

(i) बाह्य कर्ण (External Ear):
मनुष्य में बाह्य कर्ण के दो भाग होते हैं – कर्ण पल्लव (pinna) तथा बाह्य कर्ण कुहर (external auditory canal) कर्ण पल्लव केवल स्तनियों में ही पाए जाते हैं। ये लचीली उपास्थि से बनी पंखेनुमा रचना है। कर्ण पल्लव ध्वनि तरंगों को कर्ण कुहर में भेजता है। बाह्य कर्ण कुहर एक अस्थिल नलिका है, जो मध्य कर्ण से जुड़ी रहती है। बाह्य कर्ण कुहर के अन्तिम सिरे पर एक पर्दे जैसी रचना कर्णपटह (tymapanic membrane) होती है।

(ii) मध्य कर्ण (Middle Ear):
यह करोटि की टिम्पैनिक बुल्ला (tympanic bulla) नामक अस्थि की गुहा में स्थित होता है। मध्य कर्ण कण्ठ कर्ण नलिका या यूस्टेकियन नलिका (eustachian tube) द्वारा ग्रसनी (pharynx) से जुड़ा रहता है।

मध्य कर्ण में तीन कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ(ear ossicles) होती है। इन्हें मैलियम, इन्कस तथा स्टैपीज (malleus, incus and stapes) कहते हैं। मैलियस कान के पर्दे से सटी रहती है तथा स्टैपीज अन्त:कर्ण की ओर अण्डाकार गवाक्ष या फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस (fenestra ovalis) पर स्थित होती है।

चित्र – मनुष्य का कर्ण

ये तीनों कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ ध्वनि तरंगों को बाह्य कर्ण से अन्त: कर्ण तक पहुँचाने का कार्य करती हैं।

मध्य कर्ण दो छिद्रों द्वारा अन्तःकर्ण की गुहा से जुड़ा होता है, इन्हें अण्डाकार गवाक्ष या फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस (fenestra ovalis) तथा वृत्ताकार गवाक्ष या फेनेस्ट्रा रोटन्डस (fenestra rotundus) कहते हैं। इन छिद्रों के ऊपर झिल्ली उपस्थित होती है।

(iii) अन्तःकर्ण (Internal Ear):
अन्त:कर्ण करोटि की टैम्पोरल अस्थि के भीतर स्थित होता है। अन्तःकर्ण एक अर्द्धपारदर्शक झिल्ली से बनी जटिल रचना होती है, जिसे कलागहन (membranous labyrinth) कहते हैं। कलागहन अस्थि के बने कोष में स्थित रहता है जिसे अस्थीय लेबिरिन्थ (bony labyrinth) कहते हैं। अस्थीय लेबिरिन्थ में परिलसीका (perilymph) भरा रहता है, जिसमें कलागहन तैरता रहता है। कलागहन के भीतर अन्तःलसीका (endolymph) भरा रहता है।

कलागहन के दो मुख्य भाग यूट्रिकुलस (utriculus) तथा सैक्यूलस (sacculus) होते हैं। दोनों भाग एक सँकरी सैक्यूलोयूट्रिकुलर नलिका (sacculo-utricular duct) द्वारा जुड़े रहते हैं। यूट्रिकुलस से तीन अर्द्धवृत्ताकार नलिकाएँ (semicircular canals) निकलकर यूट्रिकुलस में ही खुल जाती हैं।

अग्र तथा पश्च अर्द्धवृत्ताकार नलिकाएँ एकसाथ सहनलिका (crus commune) के रूप में निकलती हैं। अर्द्धवृत्ताकार नलिकाओं का अन्तिम भाग तुम्बिका (ampulla) के रूप में फूला होता है। सैक्यूलस से स्प्रिंग की तरह कुण्डलित कॉक्लियर नलिका (cochlear duct) निकलती है। इसमें 2 \(\frac{2}{3}\) कुण्डलन होते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित की तुलना कीजिए –
(अ) केन्द्रीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र और परिधीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र
(ब) स्थिर विभवं और सक्रिय विभव
(स) कोरॉइड और रेटिना।
उत्तर:
(अ) केन्द्रीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र तथा परिधीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र में अन्तर (Difference between Central Nervous System and Peripheral Nervous System):

(ब) स्थिर विभव और सक्रिय विभव में अन्तर (Difference between Resting Potential and Action Potential):

(स) कोरॉइड और रेटिना में अन्तर (Difference between Choroid and Retina):

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रक्रियाओं का वर्णन कीजिए –
(अ) तन्त्रिका तन्तु की झिल्ली का ध्रुवीकरण
(ब) तन्त्रिका तन्तु की झिल्ली का विधुवीकरण
(स) तन्त्रिका तन्तु के समांतर आवेगों का संचरण
(द) रासायनिक सिनैप्स द्वारा तन्त्रिका आवेगों का संवहन।
उत्तर:
(अ) तन्त्रिका तन्तु की झिल्ली का ध्रुवीकरण (Polarisation of the Membrane of a Nerve Fibre):
तन्त्रिका तन्तु के ऐक्सोप्लाज्म में Na⁺ की संख्या बहुत कम, परन्तु ऊतक तरल में लगभग 12 गुना अधिक होती है। ऐक्सोप्लाज्म में K⁺ की संख्या ऊतक तरल का अपेक्षा लगभग 30-35 गुना अधिक होती है।

विसरण अनुपात के अनुसार Na⁺ की ऊतक तरल से ऐक्सोप्लाज्म में और K⁺ के ऐक्सोप्लाज्म से ऊतक तरल में विसरित होने की प्रवृत्ति होती है। लेकिन तन्त्रिकाच्छद या न्यूरीलेमा (neurilemma) Na⁺ के लिए कम और K⁺ के लिए अधिक पारगम्य होती है।

विश्राम अवस्था में ऐक्सोप्लाज्म में ऋणात्मक आयनों और ऊतक तरल में धनात्मक आयनों की अधिकता रहती है। तन्त्रिकाच्छद या न्यूरीलेमा की बाह्य सतह पर धनात्मक आयनों और भीतरी सतह पर ऋणात्मक आयनों का जमाव रहता है। तन्त्रिकाच्छद की बाह्य सतह पर धनात्मक और भीतरी सतह पर 70 mV का ऋणात्मक आवेश रहता है।

इस स्थिति में तन्त्रिकाच्छद या न्यूरीलेमा विद्युतावेशी या ध्रुवण अवस्था (polarised state) में बनी रहती है। तन्त्रिकाच्छद (neurilemma) के इधर-उधर विद्युतावेशी अन्तर (electric charge difference) के कारण न्यूरीलेमा में बहुत-सी विभव ऊर्जा संचित रहती है। इसी ऊर्जा को विश्राम कला विभव कहते हैं। प्रेरणा संचरण में इसी ऊर्जा का उपयोग होता है।

चित्र – विश्रामकला विभव, इसकी स्थापना तथा अनुरक्षण।

(ब) तन्त्रिका तन्तु की झिल्ली का विध्रुवीकरण (Depolarisation of the Membrane of Nerve Fibre):
जब एक तन्त्रिका तन्तु की ऐशहोल्ड उद्दीपन (threshold stimulus) दिया जाता है तो न्यूरीलेमा (neurilemma) की पारगम्यता बदल जाती है। यह Na⁺ के लिए अधिक पारगम्य हो जाती है और K⁺ के लिए अपारगम्य हो जाती है। इसके फलस्वरूप तन्त्रिका तन्तु विश्राम कला विभव की ऊर्जा का प्रेरणा संचरण के लिए उपयोग करने में सक्षम होते हैं।

तन्त्रिका तन्तु को उद्दीपित करने पर इसके विश्राम कला विभव की ऊर्जा एक विद्युत प्रेरणा के रूप में, तन्तु के क्रियात्मक कला विभव में बदल जाती है। यह विद्युत प्रेरणा तन्त्रिकीय प्रेरणा होती है। Na⁺ ऐक्सीप्लाज्म में तेजी से प्रवेश करने लगते हैं, इसके फलस्वरूप तन्त्रिका तन्तु का विध्रुवीकरण होने लगता है। विध्रुवीकरण के फलस्वरूप न्यूरीलेमा की भीतरी सतह पर धनात्मक और बाह्य सतह पर ऋणात्मक विद्युत आवेश स्थापित हो जाता है। यह स्थिति विश्राम अवस्था के विपरीत होती है।

(स) तन्त्रिका तन्तु के समान्तर आवेगों का संचरण (Conduction of Nerve Impulse along a Nerve Fibre):
तन्त्रिकाच्छद (न्यूरीलेमा) के किसी स्थान पर तन्त्रिका आवेग की उत्पत्ति होती है तो उत्पत्ति स्थल ‘A’ पर तन्त्रिकाच्छद Na⁺ के लिए अधिक पारगम्य हो जाती है, जिसके फलस्वरूप Na⁺ तीव्रगति से अन्दर आने लगते हैं तो न्यूरीलेमा की भीतरी सतह पर धनात्मक और बाह्य सतह पर ऋणात्मक आवेश स्थापित हो जाता है। आवेग स्थल पर विध्रुवीकरण हो जाने को क्रियात्मक विभव कहते हैं। क्रियात्मक विभव तन्त्रिकीय प्रेरणा के रूप में स्थापित हो जाता है।

तन्त्रिकाच्छद से कुछ आगे ‘B’ स्थल पर झिल्ली की बाहरी सतह पर धनात्मक और भीतरी सतह पर ऋणात्मक आवेश होता है। परिणामस्वरूप, तन्त्रिका आवेग ‘A’ स्थल से ‘B’ स्थल की ओर आवेग का संचरण होता है। यह प्रक्रम सम्पूर्ण एक्सॉन में दोहराया जाता है। इसके प्रत्येक बिन्दु पर उद्दीपन को सम्पोषित किया जाता रहता है। उद्दीपन किसी भी स्थान पर अत्यन्त कम समय तक (0.001 से 0.005 सेकण्ड) तक ही रहता है।

जैसे-ही भीतरी सतह पर धनात्मक विद्युत आवेश + 35mv होता है, तन्त्रिकाच्छद की पारगम्यता प्रभावित होती है। यह पुन: Na⁺ के लिए अपारगम्य और K⁺ के लिए अत्यधिक पारगम्य हो जाती है। K⁺ तेजी से ऐक्सोप्लाज्म में ऊतक तरल से जाने लगते हैं। सोडियम-पोटैशियम पम्प पुन: सक्रिय हो जाता है जिससे तन्त्रिका तन्तु विश्राम विभव में आ जाता है। अब यह अन्य उद्दीपन के संचरण हेतु फिर तैयार हो जाता है।

(द) रासायनिक सिनैप्स द्वारा तन्त्रिका आवेगों का संवहन (Transmission of Nerve Impulse across a Chemical Synapse):
अक्षतन्तु (axon) के अन्तिम छोर पर स्थित अन्त्य बटन (terminal button) तथा अन्य तन्त्रिका कोशिका के डेन्ड्राइट के मध्य एक युग्मानुबन्ध (synapse) होता है। अतः इस स्थान पर आवेग का संचरण विशेष रासायनिक पदार्थ ऐसीटिलकोलीन (acetylcholine) नामक न्यूरोहॉर्मोन का संचरण विशेष रासायनिक पदार्थ ऐसीटिलकोलीन (acetylcholine) नामक न्यूरोहॉर्मोन (neurohormone) के द्वारा होता है।

आवेग के प्राप्त होने पर अन्त्य बटन में उपस्थित स्रावी पुटिकाएँ (secretory vesicles) ऐसीटिलकोलीन स्रावित करती हैं। यही पदार्थ दूसरी तन्त्रिका कोशिका के डेण्ड्राइट (dendrites) में कार्यात्मक विभव (action potential) को स्थापित कर देता है। अब यही विभव, आवेग के रूप में अगले तन्त्रिका तन्तु की सम्पूर्ण लम्बाई में आगे बढ़ता जाता है। इस प्रकार, ऐसीटिलकोलीन एक रासायनिक दूत (chemical transmitter) की तरह कार्य करता है। बाद में, ऐसीटिलकोलीन कोएन्जाइम-ऐसीटिलकोलीनेस्टेरेज (acetylcholinesterase) द्वारा विघटित कर दिया जाता है।

चित्र – युग्मानुबन्ध पर आवेग का रासायनिक संवहन।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित का नामांकित चित्र बनाइए –
(अ) न्यूरॉन
(ब) मस्तिष्क
(स) नेत्र
(द) कर्ण।
उत्तर:
(अ) न्यूरॉन की संरचना (Structure of Neuron)।
(ब) मस्तिष्क की संरचना (Structure of Brain)।
(स) नेत्र की संरचना (Structure of Eye)।
(द) कर्ण की संरचना (Structure of Ear)।
इन तीनों की संरचना हेतु प्रश्न संख्या 1 का उत्तर देखें।

(अ) न्यूरॉन की संरचना:

चित्र – एक ध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिका तथा उसके सम्पर्क

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए –
(अ) तन्त्रीय समन्वयनं
(ब) अग्रमस्तिष्क
(स) मध्यमस्तिष्क
(द) पश्चमस्तिष्क
(य) रेटिना
(र) कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ
(ल) कॉक्लिया
(व) ऑर्गन ऑफ कॉरटाई
(त) सिनैप्स।
उत्तर:
(अ) तन्त्रीय समन्वयन (Nervous – Coordination):
शरीर की विभिन्न क्रियाओं का नियन्त्रण तथा नियमन सूचना प्रसारण तन्त्र (communication system) द्वारा होता है। इसके अन्तर्गत तन्त्रिका तन्त्र (nervous system) तथा अन्तःस्रावी तन्त्र (Endocrine System) आते हैं। तन्त्रिका निर्माण तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं (nerve cells) से होता है। ये कोशिकाएँ उत्तेजनशीलता एवं संवाहकता के लिए विशिष्टीकृत होती हैं।

ये आवेगों को संवेदांगों से ग्रहण करके केन्द्रीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र तक और केन्द्रीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र द्वारा होने वाली प्रतिक्रियाओं को अपवाहक (effectors) अंगों तक पहुँचाने का कार्य करती हैं। अपवाहक अंगों के अन्तर्गत मुख्यतया पेशियाँ तथा ग्रन्थियाँ आती हैं। केन्द्रीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र उद्दीपनों की व्याख्या, विश्लेषण करके प्रतिक्रियाओं का निर्धारण करता है।

(ब) अग्रमस्तिष्क (Fore brain):
अग्र मस्तिष्क के तीन भाग होते हैं –

1. 1. घ्राण भाग
   2. सेरेब्रम तथा
   3. डाइएनसिफैलॉन।

1. घ्राण भाग: मनुष्य में घ्राण भाग अवशेषी होता है तथा अग्रमस्तिष्क का मुख्य भाग सेरिब्रम होता है।

2. प्रमस्तिष्क या सेरेब्रम (Cerebrum): मस्तिष्क का लगभग 2/3 भाग प्रमस्तिष्क होता है। प्रमस्तिष्क दो पालियों में बँटा होता है जिन्हें प्रमस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध (cerebral hemispheres) कहते हैं। दोनों प्रमस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध तन्त्रिका तन्तुओं की एक पट्टी द्वारा जुड़े रहते हैं जिसे कॉर्पस कैलोसम (corpus callosum) कहते हैं। प्रमस्तिष्क में तन्त्रिका कोशिकाएँ इस प्रकार स्थित होती हैं कि इनके कोशिकाकाय बाहर की ओर स्थित होते हैं।

इस भाग को प्रमस्तिष्क वल्कुट (cerebral cortex) कहते हैं भीतर की ओर तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं पर अक्षतन्तु (axon) स्थित होते हैं। यह भाग प्रमस्तिष्क मध्यांश (cerebral medulla) कहलाता है। बाहरी भाग धूसर (ग्रे) रंग का होता है। इसे धूसर द्रव्य (grey matter) कहते हैं। भीतरी भाग श्वेत-(सफेद) रंग का होता है। इसे श्वेत द्रव्य (white matter) कहते हैं।

प्रमस्तिष्क की पृष्ठ सतह में तन्त्रिका तन्तुओं की अत्यधिक संख्या होने के कारण यह सतह अत्यधिक मोटी व वलनों वाली (folded) हो जाती है। इस सतह को नियोपैलियम (neopallium) कहते हैं। नियोपैलियम में उभरे हुए भागों को उभार या गायराई (gyri) तथा बीच के दबे भाग को खाँच या सल्काई (sulci) कहते हैं।

तीन गहरी दरारें प्रत्येक प्रमस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध को चार मुख्य पालियों में बाँट देती हैं। इन्हें फ्रन्टल पालि (frontal lobe), पैराइटल पालि (parietal lobe), टैम्पोरल पालि (temporal lobe) तथा ऑक्सीपीटल पालि (occipital lobe) कहते हैं। प्रमस्तिष्क की गुहाओं को पार्श्व मस्तिष्क गुहा या पैरासील (paracoel or lateral ventricles) कहते हैं।

3. अग्रमस्तिष्क ‘पश्च या डाइएनसिफैलॉन (Diencephalon): यह अग्रमस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है। इसका पृष्ठ भाग पतला होता है तथा अधर भाग मोटा होता है जिसे हाइपोथैलैमस (hypothalamus) कहते हैं। हाइपोथैलेमस की अधर सतह पर इन्फन्डीबुलम (infundibulum) से जुड़ी पीयूष ग्रन्थि होती है।

डाइएनसिफैलॉन की पृष्ठ सतह पर पीनियल काय (pineal body) तथा अग्र रक्त जालक, (anterior choroid plexus) पाया जाता है। डाइएनसिफैलॉन की गुहा तृतीय निलय (third ventricle) या डायोसील (diocoel) होती है, यह पार्श्व गुहाओं से मोनरो के छिद्र (foramen of Monaro) द्वारा जुड़ी रहती है।

(स) मध्यमस्तिष्क (Mid brain):
यह भाग स्तनियों में बहुत अधिक विकसित नहीं होता है। इसका पृष्ठ भाग चार दृक् पालियों के रूप में होता है, जिन्हें कॉर्पोरा क्याड्रिजेमिना (corpora quadrigemina) कहते हैं। मध्यमस्तिष्क के पार्श्व व अधर भाग में तन्त्रिका ऊतक की पट्टियाँ होती हैं जिन्हें क्रूरा सेरेब्राई (crura cerebri) कहते हैं। ये पश्चमस्तिष्क को अग्रमस्तिष्क से जोड़ने का कार्य करती हैं। यहाँ दृक् तन्त्रिकाएँ एक-दूसरे को क्रॉस करके, ऑप्टिक कियाज्मा (optic chiasma) बनाती है। मध्यमस्तिष्क की सँकरी गुहा को आइटर (iter) कहते हैं, जो तृतीय निलय को चतुर्थ निलय (fourth ventricle) से जोड़ती हैं।

(द) पश्चमस्तिष्क (Hind brain):
यह मस्तिष्क का पश्च भाग है। इसे मस्तिष्क वृन्त (brain stalk) भी कहते हैं। पश्च मस्तिष्क के दो भाग होते हैं –

(i) अनुमस्तिष्क (cerebellum)
(ii) मस्तिष्क पुच्छ या मेडुला ऑब्लांगेटा (medulla oblongata)।

(i) अनुमस्तिष्क (Cerebellum):
यह प्रमस्तिष्क के पिछले भाग से सटा रहता है। अनुमस्तिष्क दो पार्श्व गोला? (lateral hemispheres) का बना होता है। अनुमस्तिष्क में बाहरी धूसर द्रव्य तथा आन्तरिक श्वेत द्रव्य होता है। श्वेत द्रव्य में स्थान-स्थान पर धूसर. द्रव्य प्रवेश करके वृक्ष की शाखाओं जैसी रचना बनाता है। इसे प्राणवृक्ष या आरबर विटी (arbor vitae) कहते हैं। अनुमस्तिष्क में गुहा अनुपस्थित होती है। अनुमस्तिष्क के अधर भाग में श्वेत द्रव्य की एक पट्टी होती है जिसे पोंस वेरोली (pons varolli) कहते हैं।

(ii) मस्तिष्क पुच्छ या मेडुला ऑब्लांगेटा (Medulla Oblongata):
यह मस्तिष्क का सबसे पिछला भाग है जो आगे मेरुरज्जु के रूप में कपाल गुहा से बाहर निकलता है। मेडुला की पृष्ठ भित्ति पर पश्च रक्त जालक (posterior choroid plexus) स्थित होता है। मेडुला की गुहा को चतुर्थ निलय या मेटासील (fourth ventricle or metacoel) कहते हैं।

(य) रेटिना (Retina):
यह नेत्र गोलक की सबसे भीतरी पर्त होती है। यह प्रकाश संवेदी स्तर होता है। रेटिना का वर्णक स्तर रक्तपटल (choroid layer) से लगा होता है। रेटिना की स्थिति की भीतरी पर्त तन्त्रिका संवेदी होती है। इसका निर्माण निम्नलिखित तीन पर्तों से होता है –

(i) शलाकाओं व शंकुओं का स्तर (Layer of Rods and Cones):
शलाकाएँ (rods) तथा शंकु (cones) रूपान्तरित तन्त्रिका कोशिका होते हैं। शलाकाओं में दृष्टि पर्पल (visual purple) नामक चमकदार वर्णक होता है जिसे रोडोप्सिन (rhodopsin) कहते हैं। रोडोप्सिन का निर्माण वर्णक रेटिनीन (retinene) तथा प्रोटीन ऑप्सिन या स्कॉटोप्सिन (opsin or scotopsin) से होता है। रेटिनीन के संश्लेषण के लिए विटामिन ‘ए’ की आवश्यकता होती है।

शंकुओं में दृष्टि वायलेट (visual violet) नामक वर्णक होता है जिसे आयोडोप्सिन (iodopsin) कहते हैं। आयोडोप्सिन का निर्माण रेटिनीन तथा फोटोप्सिन (photopsin) से होता है। शंकु रंगों का ज्ञान कराते हैं। शलाकाएँ अँधेरे व प्रकाश में भेद करती हैं। ये मन्द प्रकाश में भी कार्य कर सकती हैं। मुर्गी में केवल शंकु (cones) तथा उल्लू में केवल शलाकाएँ (rods) पाई जाती हैं।

(ii) द्विध्रुवीय-न्यूरॉन का स्तर (Layer of Bipolar Neurons):
इस स्तर में द्विध्रुवीय न्यूरॉन्स की एक कतार होती हैं।

(iii) गुच्छकीय कोशिकाओं का स्तर (Layer of Ganglionic Cells):
इस स्तर में भी गुच्छकीय कोशिकाओं की एक कतार होती है। गुच्छकीय कोशिकाओं के अक्षतन्तु (axons) परस्पर मिलकर दृक् तन्त्रिका (optic nerve) का निर्माण करते हैं।

चित्र – रेटिना की रचना का परिवर्द्धित रेखाचित्र

दृक् तन्त्रिका नेत्र गोलक के तीनों स्तरों को भेदती हुई, नेत्र कोटर में बने दृक् छिद्र (optic foramen) द्वारा होकर मस्तिष्क की ओर चली जाती है। जिस स्थान से दृक् तन्त्रिका रेटिना से निकलती हैं, वहाँ प्रतिबिम्ब निर्माण नहीं होता। इस स्थान को अन्ध बिन्दु (blind spot) कहते हैं। नेत्र की मध्य लम्ब अक्ष (optical axis) पर स्थित रेटिना के मध्य भाग को मध्य क्षेत्र (area centralis) कहते हैं। इस भाग को पीत बिन्दु (yellow spot) या मैकुला ल्यूटिया (macula lutea) भी कहते हैं। यहाँ उपस्थित एक छोटे से गर्त को फोविया सेन्ट्रैलिस (fovea centralis) कहते हैं। पीत बिन्दु क्षेत्र में सबसे स्पष्ट प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है।

(र) कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ (Ear Ossicles):
मध्यकर्ण में तीन कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ चल सन्धियों द्वारा परस्पर जुड़ी रहती हैं। इन्हें क्रमश; मैलियस (malleus), इन्कस (incus) और स्टैपीज (stapes) कहते हैं।

(i) मैलियस (Malleus):
यह हथौड़ीनुमा होती है। इसका बाह्य सँकरा भाग कर्णपटह से तथा भीतरी चौड़ा सिरा इन्कस से जुड़ा होता है।

(ii) इन्कस (Incus):
यह निहाई (anvil) के आकार की होती है। इसका बाहरी चौड़ा सिरा मैलियस से तथा भीतरी सँकरा भाग स्टैपीज से जुड़ा होता है।

(iii) स्टैपीज (Stapes):
यह रकाब (stirrup) के आकार की होती है। इसका संकरा सिरा इन्कस से और चौड़ा सिरा फेनेस्ट्रा ओवैलिस (fenestra ovalis) से लगा होता है। कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ कर्णपटह पर होने वाले ध्वनि कम्पनों को अधिक प्रबल करके फेनेस्ट्रा ओवैलिस द्वारा अन्त:कर्ण में पहुँचाती हैं।

चित्र – कॉक्लिया की अनुप्रस्थ काट

(ल) कॉक्लिया (Cochlea):
मनुष्य का अन्तःकर्ण या कलागहन (membranous labyrinth) दो मुख्य भागों से बना होता है। यूट्रिकुलस (utriculus) तथा सैक्यूलस (sacculus) सैक्यूलस से स्प्रिंग की तरह कुण्डलित कॉक्लिया निकलता है। यह नलिकारूपी होता है। इसमें 2\(\frac{3}{4}\) कुण्डलन होते हैं। इसके चारों ओर अस्थिल कॉक्लिया का आवरण होता है।

कॉक्लिया की नलिका अस्थिल लेबिरिन्थ की भित्ति से जुड़ी रहती है जिससे अस्थिल लेबिरिन्थ की गुहा दो वेश्मों में बँट जाती है। पृष्ठ वेश्म को स्कैला वेस्टीबुली (scala vestibuli) कहते हैं तथा अधर वेश्म को स्कैला टिम्पैनी (scala tympani) कहते हैं। इन दोनों वेश्म के मध्य कॉक्लिया का वेश्म स्कैला मीडिया (scala media) होता है।

(व) ऑर्गन ऑफ कॉरटाई (Organ of Corti):
कॉक्लिया नलिका की गुहा स्कैला मीडिया की पतली पृष्ठ भित्ति रीसनर्स कला (Reissner’s membrane) कहलाती है। अधर भित्ति मोटी होती है। इसे बेसीलर कला (basilar membrane) कहते हैं। बेसीलर कला के मध्य में कॉरटाई का अंग (organ of Corti) होता है। इसमें अवलम्ब कोशिकाओं के बीच-बीच में संवेदी कोशिकाएँ होती हैं।

प्रत्येक संवेदी कोशिका के स्वतन्त्र तल पर स्टीरियोसीलिया (stereocilia) होते हैं। कॉरटाई के अंग के ऊपर टेक्टोरियल कला (tectorial membrane) स्थित होती है। संवेदी कोशिकाओं से निकले तन्त्रिका तन्तु मिलकर श्रवण · तन्त्रिका (auditory nerve) का निर्माण करते हैं। कॉरटाई के अंग ध्वनि के उद्दीपनों को ग्रहण करते हैं।

चित्र – कॉरटाई के अंग की विस्तृत रचना

(त) सिनैप्स (Synapse):
प्रत्येक तन्त्रिका कोशिका का अक्षतन्तु (axon) अपने स्वतन्त्र छोर, पर टीलोडेन्ड्रिया (telodendria) या एक्सॉन अन्तस्थ (axon terminals) नामक शाखाओं में बँट जाता है। प्रत्येक शाखा का अन्तिम छोर घुण्डीनुमा होता है। इसे सिनैप्टिक बटन (synaptic button) कहते हैं। ये घुण्डिंया समीपवर्ती तन्त्रिका कोशिका के डेण्ड्राइट्स के साथ सन्धि बनाती हैं। इन संधियों को सिनैप्स या युग्मानुबन्ध कहते हैं।

युग्मानुबन्ध पर सूचना लाने वाली तन्त्रिका कोशिका को पूर्व सिनैष्टिक (presynaptic) तथा सूचना ले जाने वाली तन्त्रिका कोशिका को पश्च सिनैप्टिक (post synaptic) कहते हैं। इनके मध्य भौतिक सम्पर्क नहीं होता। दोनों के मध्य लगभग 20 से 40 m u का दरारनुमा सिनैप्टिक विदर होता है। इसमें ऊतक तरल भरा होता है। सिनैप्टिक विदर से उद्दीपन या प्रेरणाओं का संवहन तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थों; जैसे-ऐसीटिलकोलीन (acetylcholine) के द्वारा होता है।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्न पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी दीजिए –
(अ) सिनैप्टिक संचरण की क्रियाविधि
(ब) देखने की प्रक्रिया
(स) श्रवण की प्रक्रिया।
उत्तर:
(अ) सिनैप्टिक संचरण की क्रियाविधि (Mechanism of Synaptic Transmission):
शेरिंगटन (Sherrington) ने दो तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं के सन्धि स्थलों को युग्मानुबन्ध (synapsis) कहा। इसका निर्माण पूर्व सिनैप्टिक तथा पश्च सिनैप्टिक तन्त्रिका तन्तुओं से होता है।

युग्मानुबन्ध में पूर्व सिनैप्टिक तन्त्रिका के एक्सॉन या अक्षतन्तु के अन्तिम छोर पर स्थित सिनैप्टिक बटन (synaptic button) तथा पश्च सिनैप्टिक तन्त्रिका कोशिका के डेन्ड्राइट्स के मध्य सन्धि होती है। दोनों के मध्य सिनैप्टिक विदर (synaptic cleft) होता है, इससे उद्दीपन विद्युत, तरंग के रूप में प्रसारित नहीं हो पाता।

सिनैप्टिक बटन या घुण्डियों में सिनैप्टिक पुटिकाएँ (synaptic vesicles) होती हैं। ये तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ (neurotransmitters) से भरी होती है। उद्दीपन या प्रेरणा के क्रियात्मक विभव के कारण Ca²⁺ ऊतक द्रव्य से सिनैप्टिक घुण्डियों में प्रवेश करते हैं तो सिनैप्टिक घुण्डियों से तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ मुक्त होता है। यह तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ पश्च सिनैप्टिक, तन्त्रिका के डेन्ड्राइट पर क्रियात्मक विभव को स्थापित कर देता है, इसमें लगभग 0.5 मिली सेकण्ड का समय लगता है।

प्रेरणा प्रसारण या क्रियात्मक विभव के स्थापित हो जाने के पश्चात् एन्जाइम्स द्वारा तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ का विघटन कर दिया जाता है, जिससे अन्य प्रेरणा को प्रसारित किया जा सके। सामान्यतया सिनैप्टिक पुटिकाओं से ऐसीटिलकोलीन (acetylcholine) नामक तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ मुक्त होता है। इसका विघटन ऐसीटिलकोलीनेस्टीरेज (acetylcholinesterase) एन्जाइम द्वारा होता है।

एपिनेफ्रीन (epinephrine) डोपामीन (dopamine), हिस्टैमीन (histamine), HIHChefca (somatostatine) 3tif Taref अन्य तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ हैं। ग्लाइसीन (glycine) गामा-ऐमीनोब्यूटाइरिक (gamma aminobutyric acid-GABA) आदि तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ प्रेरणाओं के प्रसारण को रोक देते हैं।

(ब) देखने की प्रक्रिया (Mechanism of Vision):
नेत्र कैमरे की भाँति कार्य करते हैं। ये प्रकाश की 380 से 760 नैनोमीटर तरंगदैर्ध्य (wave-length) की किरणों की ऊर्जा को ग्रहण करके इसे तन्त्रिका तन्तु के क्रिया विभव (action potential) में बदल देते हैं।

नेत्र की क्रिया-विधि (Working of Eye):
जब उचित आवृत्ति की प्रकाश तरंगें कॉर्निया पर पड़ती हैं, तब कॉर्निया तथा तेजोजल प्रकाश किरणों का अपवर्तन (refraction) कर देते हैं। ये किरणें तारे से होकर लेन्स पर पड़ती हैं। लेन्स इनका पूर्ण अपवर्तन कर देता है और उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बना देता है। आइरिस तारे को छोटा या बड़ा करके प्रकाश की मात्रा का नियन्त्रण करता है। तीव्र प्रकाश में तारा सिकुड़ जाता है तथा कम प्रकाश नेत्र के भीतर प्रवेश करता है। कम प्रकाश में तारा फैल जाता है और अधिक प्रकाश नेत्र के भीतर प्रवेश करता है।

नेत्र द्वारा समायोजन (Accommodation by Eye):
सीलियरी काय तथा निलम्बन स्नायु (suspensory ligaments) लेन्स के फोकस में अन्तर लाकर वस्तु के प्रतिबिम्ब को रेटिना पर केन्द्रित करते हैं। सामान्य अवस्था में नेत्र दूर की वस्तु देखने के लिए समायोजित रहता है। इस समय सीलियरी काय शिथिल (relaxed) रहता है तथा निलम्बन स्नायु तना रहता है। इससे लेन्स की फोकस दूरी अधिक हो जाती है और दूर की वस्तु का स्पष्ट प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है।

चित्र – नेत्र द्वारा प्रतिबिम्ब का निर्माण
पास की वस्तु देखने के लिए सीलियरी काय में संकुचन तथा निलम्बन स्नायु में शिथिलन होता है। इससे लेन्स छोटा व मोटा हो जाता है तथा इसकी फोकस दूरी कम हो जाती है। इससे पास की वस्तु का स्पष्ट प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है।

चित्र – नेत्र द्वारा समायोजन

प्रकाश-रासायनिक परिवर्तन (Photo – chemical Changes):
जब विशिष्ट तरंगदैर्ध्य वाली प्रकाश की किरणें रेटिना पर पड़ती हैं, तब वे शलाकाओं तथा शंकुओं में उपस्थित रसायनों में परिवर्तन करती हैं।

चित्र – शलाका में प्रकाश-रासायनिक परिवर्तन जब प्रकाश की किरणें शलाकाओं के रोडोप्सिन पर पड़ती है, तब यह रेटिनीन (retinene) तथा ऑप्सिन (opsin) में टूट जाता है। अन्धकार में शलाकाओं में एन्जाइम्स की सहायता से रेटिनीन तथा ऑप्सिन रोडोप्सिन का संश्लेषण करते हैं। यही कारण है कि जब हम तीव्र प्रकाश से अन्धकार में जाते हैं, तब एकदम कुछ दिखाई नहीं देता किन्तु धीरे-धीरे स्पष्ट दिखाई देने लगता है।

शंकुओं में आयोडोप्सिन उपस्थित होता है। इसका वर्णक घटक रेटिनीन तथा प्रोटीन घटक फोटोप्सिन होता है। शंकु तीन प्रारम्भिक रंगों को ग्रहण करते हैं, जो लाल, नीला व हरा होते हैं। इन्हीं तीन प्रकार के शंकुओं द्वारा विभिन्न मात्रा में उद्दीपन ग्रहण से अन्य रंगों का ज्ञान होता है। मनुष्य व दूसरे प्राइमेट्स में दोनों नेत्रों द्वारा एक ही प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है। ऐसी दृष्टि को द्विनेत्री दृष्टि (binocular vision) कहते हैं।

(स) श्रवण की प्रक्रिया (Mechanism of Hearing):
कर्ण के निम्नलिखित प्रमुख दो कार्य होते हैं –

(i) कर्ण का प्राथमिक कार्य शरीर का स्थैतिक तथा गतिक सन्तुलन बनाए रखना तथा
(ii) ध्वनि ग्रहण करना अर्थात् श्रवण करना।

अन्त:कर्ण के कलागहन के कॉक्लिया में स्थित कॉरटाई का अंग ध्वनि के उद्दीपनों को ग्रहण करने के लिए उत्तरदायी है। श्रवण क्रिया में कर्ण द्वारा एक विशेष आवृत्ति की ध्वनि कम्पनों को ग्रहण करके कॉरटाई के अंग में स्थित संवेदी कोशिकाओं तक भेजा जाता है।

संवेदी कोशिकाएँ इन तरंगों को तन्त्रिका के क्रिया विभव में परिवर्तित कर देती है। मस्तिष्क के ध्वनि वल्कुट (auditory cortex) सुनने का कार्य करता है। मनुष्य का कर्ण 16 से 20,000 साइकिल प्रति सेकण्ड की ध्वनि तरंगों को ग्रहण कर सकता है। बाह्य कर्ण पल्लव ध्वनि तरंगों को कर्ण कुहर में भेज देता है। ध्वनि तरंगें कर्णपटह में कम्पन्न उत्पन्न करती हैं।

मध्य कर्ण की कर्ण अस्थिकाओं द्वारा कर्ण पटह से कम्पन्न अण्डाकार गवाक्ष के ऊपर मढ़ी झिल्ली पर पहुंचते हैं। इसके फलस्वरूप अन्त:कर्ण के स्कैला वेस्टीबुली (scala vestibuli) के परिलसिका में कम्पन्न होने लगता है। यहाँ के कम्पन्न स्कैला टिम्पैनी (scala tympani) के परिलसीका में पहुंचते हैं। रीसनर्स कला तथा बेसीलर कला में कम्पन्न होने से स्कैला मीडिया (scala media) के अन्त:लसीका में कम्पन्न होने लगता है जिससे कॉरटाई के अंग के संवेदी रोमों में कम्पन्न होने लगता है।

संवेदी रोमों के कम्पन्न टेक्टोरियल कला में कम्पन्न उत्पन्न करके ध्वनि संवेदना की प्रेरणा उत्पन्न कर देते हैं। श्रवण तन्त्रिका द्वारा ध्वनि संवेदना मस्तिष्क के ध्वनि वल्कुट (auditory cortex) तक पहुँच जाती है। ध्वनि की तीव्रता संवेदी रोमों के कम्पन की तीव्रता से ज्ञात होती है। ध्वनि तरंगों के कम्पन वृत्ताकार गवाक्ष की झिल्ली से टकराकर समाप्त हो जाते हैं।

चित्र – कर्ण में ध्वनि तरंगों का मार्ग

प्रश्न 7.
(अ) आप किस प्रकार किसी वस्तु के रंग का पता लगाते हैं?
(ब) हमारे शरीर का कौन-सा भाग शरीर का सन्तुलन बनाए रखने में मदद करता है?
(स) नेत्र किस प्रकार रेटिना पर पड़ने वाले प्रकाश का नियमन करते हैं?
उत्तर:
(अ) नेत्र गोलक की रेटिना तन्त्रिका संवेदी (neurosensory) होती है। इसमें दृष्टि शलाकाएँ (rods) तथा दृष्टि शंकु (cones) पाए जाते हैं। शंकुओं में आयोडोप्सिन (iodopsin) दृष्टि वर्णक पाया जाता है। तीव्र प्रकाश में शंकु विभिन्न रंगों को ग्रहण करते हैं। शंकु तीन प्राथमिक रंगों लाल, हरे व नीले से सम्बन्धित भिन्न-भिन्न प्रकार के होते हैं। ये इन प्राथमिक रंगों को ग्रहण करते हैं। इन प्राथमिक रंगों के मिश्रण से विभिन्न रंगों का ज्ञान होता है।

(ब) अन्त:कर्ण की अर्द्धचन्द्राकार नलिकाओं के तुम्बिका (ampulla), सैक्यूलस तथा यूट्रिकुलस शरीर का सन्तुलन बनाने का कार्य करती है। यूट्रिकुलस तथा सैक्टूलस के मैकुला तथा अर्द्धचन्द्राकार नलिकाओं के तुम्बिका में स्थित संवेदी कूटों द्वारा गतिक सन्तुलन (dynamic equilibrium) नियन्त्रित होता है।

जब शरीर एक ओर को झुक जाता है, तब ऑटोकोनिया उसी ओर चले जाते हैं जहाँ वे संवेदी कूटों को उद्दीपन प्रदान करते हैं। इससे तन्त्रिका आवेग उत्पन्न होता है और मस्तिष्क में शरीर के झुकने.की सूचना पहुँच जाती है। मस्तिष्क प्रेरक तन्त्रिकाओं द्वारा सम्बन्धित पेशियों को सूचना भेजकर शरीर का सन्तुलन बनाता हैं।

(स) रेटिना (retina) पर पड़ने वाले प्रकाश की मात्रा का नियमन उपतारा (iris) द्वारा किया जाता है। यह एक मुद्राकार, चपटा, मिलैनिन वर्णकयुक्त तन्तुपट (diaphragm) के रूप में होता है। इसके गोल छिद्र को तारा या पुतली (pupil) कहते हैं। उपतारा (iris) में अरेखित अरीय प्रसारी पेशियाँ (radial dilatory muscles) तथा अरेखित वर्तुल अवरोधिनी पेशियाँ (circular sphincter muscles) होती है।

अरीय पेशियों के संकुचन से पुतली का व्यास बढ़ जाता है और वर्तुल पेशियों के संकुचन से पुतली का व्यास घट जाता है। इस प्रकार ये पेशियाँ क्रमश: मन्द प्रकाश और तीव्र प्रकाश में संकुचित होकर रेटिना पर पड़ने वाले प्रकाश की मात्रा का नियमन करती हैं।

चित्र – उपतारा (iris) में पेशियों का विन्यास

प्रश्न 8.
(अ) सक्रिय विभव उत्पन्न करने में Na⁺ की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।
(ब) सिनैप्स पर न्यूरोट्रान्समीटर मुक्त करने में Ca⁺⁺ की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।
(स) रेटिना पर प्रकाश द्वारा आवेग उत्पन्न होने की क्रियाविधि का वर्णन कीजिए।
(द) अन्तःकर्ण में ध्वनि द्वारा तन्त्रिका आवेग उत्पन्न होने की क्रियाविधि का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
(अ) सक्रिय विभव उत्पन्न करने में Na⁺ की भूमिका (Role of Na⁺ in the generation of Action Potential):
उद्दीपन के फलस्वरूप तन्त्रिकाच्छद या न्यूरीलेमा की Na⁺ के लिए पारगम्यता बढ़ जाने से Na⁺ ऊतक तरल से ऐक्सोप्लाज्म में तेजी से पहुँचने लगते हैं। इसके फलस्वरूप तन्त्रिका तन्तु का विध्रुवीकरण हो जाता है और तन्त्रिका तन्तु का विश्राम कला विभव क्रियात्मक कला विभव में बदलकर प्रेरणा प्रसारण में सहायता करता है।

(ब) सिनैप्स पर न्यूरोट्रान्समीटर मुक्त करने में Ca⁺⁺ की भूमिक (Role of Ca⁺⁺ to release Neurotransmitters of Synapsis):
जब कोई तन्त्रिकीय प्रेरणा क्रियात्मक विभव के रूप में सिनैप्टिक घुण्डी पर पहुँचती है तो Ca⁺⁺ ऊतक तरल से सिनैप्टिक घुण्डी में प्रवेश कर जाते हैं। इनके प्रभाव से सिनैप्टिक घुण्डी की सिनैप्टिक पुटिकाएँ इसकी कला से जुड़ जाती हैं।

इससे सिनैप्टिक पुटिकाओं से तन्त्रिका संचारी पदार्थ (न्यूरोट्रान्समीटर) मुक्त होकर सिनैप्टिक विदर के ऊतक तरल में पहुँच जाता है और पश्च सिनैप्टिक तन्त्रिका कोशिका के ड्रेन्ड्राइट्स पर रासायनिक उद्दीपन द्वारा क्रियात्मक विभव को स्थापित कर देता है।

(स) रेटिना पर प्रकाश द्वारा आवेग उत्पन्न होने की fatenfalfa (Mechanism of generation of Light Impulse in the Retina) – प्रश्न 6 ‘ब’ के अन्तर्गत प्रकाश-रासायनिक परिवर्तन (photo-chemical changes) का विवरण देखिए।

(द) अन्तःकर्ण में ध्वनि द्वारा तन्त्रिका आवेग उत्पन्न होने की क्रियाविधि (Mechanism through which a Sound produces a Nerve Impulse in the Internal Ear) – प्रश्न 6 ‘स’ के अन्तर्गत देखिए।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्न के बीच में अन्तर बताइए –
(अ) आच्छादित और अनाच्छादित तंत्रिकाक्ष
(ब) द्रुमाक्ष्य और तन्त्रिकाक्ष
(स) शलाका और शंकु
(द) थैलेमस तथा हाइपोथैलेमस
(य) प्रमस्तिष्क और अनुमस्तिष्क।
उत्तर:
(अ) आच्छादित और अनाच्छादित तन्त्रिका तन्तु (Myelinated and Non-myelinated Neuron):

(ब) द्रुमाक्ष्य या गुमाश्म या वृक्षाभ और तन्त्रिकाक्ष में अन्तर (Difference between Den – drites and Axons):

(स) शलाका और शंकु में अन्तर (Difference between Rods and Cones):

(द) थैलेमस तथा हाइपोथैलेमस में अन्तर (Difference between Thalamus and Hypothalamus):

(य) प्रमस्तिष्क तथा अनुमस्तिष्क में अन्तर (Difference between Cerebrum and Cerebellum):

प्रश्न 10.
(अ) कर्ण का कौन-सा भाग ध्वनि की पिच का निर्धारण करता है?
(ब) मानव मस्तिष्क का सर्वाधिक विकसित भाग कौन-सा है?
(स) केन्द्रीय तन्त्रिका तन्त्र का कौन-सा भाग मास्टर क्लॉक की तरह कार्य करता है?
उत्तर:
(अ) कॉरटाई के अंग (organ of Corti) की संवेदनग्राही कोशिकाएँ ध्वनि की पिच का निर्धारण करती हैं तथा उद्दीपनों को ग्रहण करके श्रवण तन्त्रिका (auditory nerve) में प्रेषित करती हैं।
(ब) प्रमस्तिष्क (cerebrum) मस्तिष्क का सर्वाधिक विकसित भाग है। यह मस्तिष्क का लगभग 80% भाग बनाता है।
(स) मस्तिष्क मास्टर क्लॉक की तरह कार्य करता है।

प्रश्न 11.
कशेरुकी के नेत्र का वह भाग जहाँ से दृक् तन्त्रिका (optic nerve) रेटिना से बाहर निकलती है, क्या कहलाता है –
(अ) फोविया (Fovea)
(ब) आइरिस (Iris)
(स) अन्ध बिन्दु (Blind spot)
(द) ऑप्टिक किएज्मा (चाक्षुष किएज्मा)।
उत्तर:
(स) अन्ध बिन्दु (Blind spot)।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित में भेद स्पष्ट कीजिए –
(अ) संवेदी तन्त्रिका एवं प्रेरक तन्त्रिका।
(ब) आच्छादित एवं अनाच्छादित तन्त्रिका तन्तु में आवेग संचरण।
(स) ऐक्विअस ह्यूमर ( नेत्रोद) एवं विट्रियस ह्यमर (काचाभ द्रव)।
(द) अन्ध बिन्दु एवं पीत बिन्दु।
(य) कपालीय तन्त्रिकाएँ एवं मेरु तन्त्रिकाएँ।
उत्तर:
(अ) संवेदी तन्त्रिका एवं प्रेरक तन्त्रिका में अन्तर (Difference between Sensory and Motor Nerve):

(ब) आच्छादित एवं अनाच्छादित तन्त्रिका तन्तु में आवेग संचरण में अन्तर (Difference between Conduction of Nerve Impulse in a Myelinated and Non Myelinated Nerve Fibres):

(स) एक्विअसामर (नेत्रोद) एवं विट्रियस ह्यमर (काचाभ द्रव) में अन्तर (Difference between Aqueous and Vitreous Humour):

(द) अन्ध बिन्दु एवं पीत बिन्दु में अन्तर (Difference between Blind Spot and Yellow Spot):

(य) कपालीय तन्त्रिकाओं एवं मेरु तन्त्रिकाओं में अन्तर (Difference between Cranial Nerves and Spinal Nerves):

Bihar Board 12th Economics Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 4 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hour. 15 Min
Full Marks : 100

Instructions

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
4. This question paper has two sections : Section-A and Section-B.
5. In Section-A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you Do. not use Whitener/Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section-B, there are Non-objective type questions. There are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart forms this, there are 08 Long answer type questions, out-of which any 04 of them are to be answered. Each questions carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Percent off calculator – discover the percent of a number or find a number given a percent.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. -1 to 50 have four options provided, out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each questiion carries 1 (one) mark. [50 x 1 = 50]

Question 1.
Who. said “Economics is a science of Wealth” ?
(a) Marshall
(b) Robbins
(c) Adam Smith
(d) J. K. Mehta
Answer:
(c) Adam Smith

Question 2.
Micro-economics includes __________
(a) individual unit
(b) small units
(c) individual price determination
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 3.
Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) Human wants are infinite
(b) Resources are limited
(c) Scarcity problem gives birth to choice
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 4.
The name of the curve which shows economic problem is __________
(a) Production curve
(b) Demand curve
(c) Indifference curve
(d) Production possibility curve
Answer:
(c) Indifference curve

Question 5.
With rise in price of, coffee the demand of tea __________
(a) rises
(b) falls
(c) remains stable
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) rises

Question 6.
Goods, which can be alternatively used, are called __________
(a) Complementary goods
(b) Substitute goods
(c) Comfort goods
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Substitute goods

Question 7.
Long-run production function is related to __________
(a) Law of demand
(b) Law of increasing returns
(c) Law of returns of scale
(d) Elasticity of demand
Answer:
(c) Law of returns of scale

Question 8.
The alternative name of opportunity cost is __________
(a) Economic cost
(b) Equilibrium price
(c) Marginal cost
(d) Average cost
Answer:
(a) Economic cost

Question 9.
The first condition of firm’s equilibrium is __________
(a) MC = MR
(b) MR = TR
(c) MR = AR
(d) AC = AR
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Question 10.
The reason of decrease in supply is __________
(a) increase in production cost
(b) increase in price substitutes
(c) fall in number of firms in the industry
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 11.
When supply increase more with a result of small increase in price, the nature of supply will be __________
(a) elastic
(b) inelastic
(c) perfectly inelastic
(d) perfectly elastic
Answer:
(a) elastic

Question 12.
What does a monopolist market show?
(a) production process
(b) Distribution system
(c) Nature of market
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Nature of market

Question 13.
Market situation where there is only one buyer is __________
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopsony
(c) Duopoly
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Monopsony

Question 14.
Which factor determines equilibrium price ?
(a) Demand for commodity
(b) Supply of commodity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 15.
Market price is found in __________
(a) short period market
(b) long period market
(c) very long period market
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) short period market

Question 16.
Which is the component of factor price deter-mination ?
(a) Rent
(b) Wages
(c) Interest
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 17.
General price level is studied in __________
(a) Micro-Economics
(b) Macro-Economics
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Macro-Economics

Question 18.
Which one is the limitation of Macro Economics ?
(a) Collective Economic Paradox
(b) Ignores Individual Units
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 19.
Macro-Economics studies __________
(a) Employment opportunities in economy
(b) Theory of supply of commodities
(c) Elasticity of demand in scooter
(d) Price of wheat in market
Answer:
(a) Employment opportunities in economy

Question 20.
Primary sector includes __________
(a) Agriculture
(b) Retail trading
(c) Small industries
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 21.
Which one is included in National Income ?
(a) Rent, wage, interest
(b) Rent, wage, salary
(c) Rent, profit, interest
(d) Rent, wage, salary, interest, profit
Answer:
(d) Rent, wage, salary, interest, profit

Question 22.
Depreciation expenses are included in __________
(a) GNPMP
(b) NNPMP
(c) NNPFC
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) NNPFC

Question 23.
Which service is included in Tertiary Sector ?
(a) Mining
(b) Construction
(c) Communication
(d) Animal Husbandry
Answer:
(c) Communication

Question 24.
Which one is a component of profit ?
(a) Dividend
(b) Undistributed Profit
(c) Corporate Profit Tax
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 25.
The function of money is __________
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Measure of value
(c) Store of value
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 26.
“Money is what money does.” Who said it ?
(a) Keynes
(b) Prof. Thomas
(c) Hawtrey
(d) Hartley Withers
Answer:
(d) Hartley Withers

Question 27.
Which one is the Bank of the Public ?
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Commercial Bank

Question 28.
Credit money is increased when CRR __________
(a) falls (b) rises
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) falls (b) rises

Question 29.
Reserve Bank of India was established in __________
(a) 1947
(b) 1935
(c) 1937
(d)1945
Answer:
(b) 1935

Question 30.
Monetary policy is related with __________
(a) Public expenditure
(b) Taxes
(c) Public debt
(d) Open market operations
Answer:
(d) Open market operations

Question 31.
Banking Ombudsman Scheme was announced in the year __________
(a) 1990
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 2000
Answer:
(b) 1995

Question 32.
Who is the custodian of Indian Banking system ?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Unit Trust of India
(d) LIC of India
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 33.
“Supply creates its own demand.” Who said it ?
(a) J.B. Say
(b) J.S. Mill
(c) Keynes
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(a) J.B. Say

Question 34.
Which statement is true ?
(a) MPC + MPS = 0
(b) MPC + MPS < 1
(c) MPC + MPS = 1
(d) MPC + MPS > 1
Answer:
(c) MPC + MPS = 1

Question 35.
On which factor does Keynesian Theory of Employment depend ?
(a) Effective demand
(b) Supply
(c) Production efficiency
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Effective demand

Question 36.
Who is the writer of the book Traited Economic Politique ?
(a) Pigou
(b) J. B. Say
(c) J. M. Keynes
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(b) J. B. Say

Question 37.
Increase in aggregate demand of equilibrium level of income and production causes increase in
(a) employment
(b) production
(c) income
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 38.
Which of the following is a reason of appearing surplus demand ?
(a) Increase in Public expenditure
(b) Increase in Money supply
(c) Fall in taxes
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 39.
Budget may include __________
(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Fiscal deficit
(c) Primary deficit
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 40.
Which items are included in Balance of Pay-ments ?
(a) Visible items
(b) Invisible items
(c) Capital transfers
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 41.
The main reason of operating the law of increasing return is __________
(a) size efficiency
(b) specialisation
(c) indivisibility
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) indivisibility

Question 42.
Which of the following is the formula for measuring the elasticity of supply ? Q

Answer:
(c) \(\frac { Q }{ ∆P }\) × ∆P

Question 43.
NNPmp = ?
(a) GNPmp- Depreciation
(b) GNPmp +Depreciation
(c) GNPmp+ Indirect tax
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) GNPmp- Depreciation

Question 44.
Who is the writer of the book “General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money” ?
(a) Pigou
(b) Malthus
(c) J.M. Keynes
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(c) J.M. Keynes

Question 46.
Keynesian multiplier principle establishes relationship between
(a) Investment and Income
(b) Income and Consumption
(c) Savings and Investment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Investment and Income

Question 47.
Which of the following is the equilibrium condition for circular flow in four sector flow ?
(a) C + I
(b) C +1 + G
(c) C + 1 + G + (X- M)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) C + 1 + G + (X- M)

Question 48.
The sum of market prices of all final goods and services produced by the producers in the domestic territory of a country in an accounting year is known as
(a) GDPmp
(b) GDPfc
(c) NNPpc
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) GDPmp

Question 49.
Which of the following is a real investment ?
(a) Purchasing of a share
(b) Purchasing of an old factory
(c) Construction of buildings
(d) Opening deposit account in the bank
Answer:
(c) Construction of buildings

Question 50.
The value of Keynesian Investment Multiplier depends on
(a) Income level
(b) Marginal productivity of capital
(c) Marginal propensity of consumer
(d) Investment level
Answer:
(d) Investment level

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question no. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 out of them. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 x 3 = 30)

Question 1.
Distinguish between Giffen goods and Inferior goods.
Answer:

1. Normal goods (Giffen goods) : Normal goods are those goods for which the demand rises with every increase in the income of consumer. In other words, in case of normal goods, there is a direct relationship between income of a consumer and his demand for normal goods e.g. the demand for rice and wheat will increase with very increase in income. Thus, rice and wheat are normal goods.
2. Inferior goods : Inferior goods are low quality products and their demand decrease when income of consumer increases and vise versa. In other words, in case of interior goods, there is an inverse relationship between demand and income of consumer e.g. the demand for pea nuts or bajra will full with the rise of the income of the consumer. Hence pea nuts and bajra become inferior goods at a higher level of income.

Question 2.
What is price elasticity of demand ? How is it measured ?
Answer:
Price elasticity of demand or elasticity of demand
According to Marshall,” The. elasticity (or responsiveness) of demand in a market is great or small according as the amount demanded increases much or little for a given fall in price, or diminishes much or little for a given rise in price.”

According to Samuelson.” This is a concept devised to indicate the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in market prices.”
It is clear that:
“Price elasticity of demand may be defined as the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a commodity divided by the percentage change in price of that commodity.”

Elasticity of demand = \(\frac { Proportionate change in quantity demanded }{ Proportionate change in price. }\)

An online step by step percentage difference calculator.

Question 3.
What is Capital Adequacy Ratio Criteria ?
Answer:
Capital Adequacy Ratio Criteria : Capital adequacy ratio critieria applies for commerical bank. Under this scheme, it is compulsory to get 8% CAR for all banks working in India. All the public banks of country have got this capital adequacy ratio (CAR).

Question 4.
What is seasonal unemployment ?
Answer:
Seasonal Unemployment: Many of factories or industries work on seasonal basis. When working season on pick point they hire workers or they give employment and the other hand when season rise on pick off or-when season off they voluntary loose their workers or they spread unemployment this process is called seasonal unemployment.

Question 5.
What are deposits ?
Answer:
Deposit : It refers to those amount which accepted by banks and deposited by public for security of wealth and earning purpose. Banks take deposit from public and give a certain rate of interest.

Question 6.
Define Clearing house.
Answer:
By clearing house function of central bank we mean that, “Setting the claims of various banks against each other with least use of cash.”

Question 7.
What is progressive tax ?
Answer:
The Rate of tax decreases while income increases, in progressive system.

Question 8.
What is exchange rate ?
Answer:
Exchange rate expresses the ratio of exchange between the currencies of two countries. Hence, exchange rate is the price of a country expressed in terms of another currency.

Question 9.
Distinguish between inflationary and deflationary gap.
Answer:
“Inflationary gap is the measure of the amount by which aggregate demand exceeds the level of Aggregate demand required to maintain full employment.” “Deflationary gap, when difference occures between unsufficient supply and unsufficient demand is called deflationary gap.”

Question 10.
“Excess demand shows inflationary gap.” Clarify.
Answer:
Excess demand implies inflationary Gap : “Inflationary gap is the measure of the amount by which aggregate demand exceeds the level of aggregate demand required to maintain full employment equilibrium.”

In other words the difference between aggregate demand and aggregate supply is called inflationary gap. On situation of inflationary gap production in the economy dos not increase only prices rise i.e. at the point of full employment, production becomes constant and prices start rising. In inflationary pressure emerges in the economy.

Question 11.
What is the relationship between primary deposits and derived deposits ?
Answer:

1. Primary Deposits : Primary deposits refers to that deposit which is deposited in form of real money by banks.
2. Derived deposits : On the contrary when banks give loan to any person then that bank takes deposits of that loan in the account of that person in their own bank and deposited amount written by bank in that account is called derived deposits.

Question 12.
What is the role of bank rate in credit control ?
Answer:
The most important function of the central bank is to control the credit activities of commercial banks. Credit control refers to the increases or decrease in the value of credit money in accordance with the monetary requirement of the country. More expansion of credit money than necessary leads to the situation of inflation greater contraction of credit money on the other hand, might create a situation of deflation.

Question 13.
Explain the properties of money.
Answer:
Following are the merit or quality of good money :-

1. Utility :- The metal with which coin is made, must bear the feature of utility.
2. Portability :- The metal, with which coin is made, can easily be transferred from one place to another. Gold and silver coins bear this feature also.
3. Durable :- Money is saved by people and hence, coin should be made of such metal which is durable from saving purpose.
4. Divisibility:- Money metal should be divisible without any loss in its. Gold and silver are such metals having the feature of divisibility.
5. Homogeneity:- All units of money should be homogeneous.
6. Economy Minting cost of coin should be minimum and the depreciation in the coin should be least.
7. Stability of value Money metal should be stable in value i.e. price fluctuation in the metal of coin should be minimum.
8. Liquidity:- Money metal should be liquid in nature. Metal should easily be converted into coins and coins can be again be converted into metal easily.
9. Congnisibility :- Metal should easily be identified. Take coins can easily be traced out if metal of money is cognisible. Gold and silver are such metals having full congnisibility.

Question 14.
What is Budget ? Discuss Performance Budget and Gender Budget.
Answer:
Budget is a detailed economic statement which includes the details of income and expenditure of the government. According to Rene Stoum, “The budget is a document containing a preliminary approaval plan of public revenue and expenditure.”

1. Revenue budget : The revenue budet consists of revenue receipts of the governments and the expenditure met from rush revenues. The receipts includes tax revenue and non-tax revenue.
2. Capital budget: The capital budget consists of capital recepits and capital revenue of the Government.

Question 15.
Distinguish between fixed and flexible exchange rate.
Answer:
Difference between Fixed Exchange Rate and Flexible Exchange Rate are following :

1. Fixed Exchange Rate : The rate which is officially fixed in terms of gold or any other currency by the govt, such a rate does not vary with charges in demand and supply of foreign currency only the govt, has the power to charge it.
2. Flexible Exchange Rate : The rate which is determined by the forces of demand and supply of foreign exchange. There is an official intervention. It is free to flucted according to to changes in demand and supply of foreign currency.

Question 16.
What is balance of Trade ? Distinguish between current account and capital account in balance of payments.
Answer:
Balance of Trade : It is defined as the difference between exports and imports of goods. It takes into account only those transactions arising out of exports and import of roads. It does not consider the exchange of services between countries.
Symbolically, BoT = V_x – V_m
Where, V_x = Value of exports.
V_m = values of imports.
Current Account: Deposits in current account are payable on demand. They can be drawn of quench without any restriction. These accounts are usually maintained by business and are used for making business payments. No interest is paid on these deposits :
Capital Account : Capital account refers to those account which is maintained the capital of proprietor.

Question 17.
In an economy marginal propensity to consume is 0.65 and increase in investment is 90 crores of rupees. Calculate increase in total income and consumption expenditure.
Answer:
Multipler (k) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1 – MPC }\)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 1 – 0.65 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 0.35 }\) = 5
MPS = 1 – MPC = 1 – 0.65 = 0.35
Increase in Income = K × 41
5 × 90 = rs. 45 Crores
Increase in consumption = 0.35 × 45 = 15.75 crores

Question 18.
What is the law of price elasticity of demand ?
Answer:
Law of demand

= \(\frac { Proportionate in demand community }{ Proportional change in Price }\)
Where, TR = Total Revenue
AR = Average Revenue
Q = Quantity.

Question 19.
What is cost function ?
Answer:
Cost functions expresses the relationship between production and cost function.

Question 20.
Explain the ‘micro’ and ‘macro’ levels of economic activity.
Answer:
Micro economics is concerned with an individual economic unit like a consumer,a firm ,an industry or income of an individual.lt is based on the assumption of full employment.Its central problem is price determination. What is true at micro level may not be true for macro level. lt is based on the assumption of ‘other things being equal.This analysis is based on partial equilibrium.Its objective is to study the theories related to optimum distribution of resources. Itsnature is comparatively easy. It has main instruments of demand and supply.

Macro economics deals with aggregates of economy such as national income,aggregate expenditure,tota lemployment,general price level,etc. lt is based on the assumption of under full employment of resources.Its central problem is production and employment determination.Group behaviour is applicable on entire economy.This is based on general equilibrium analysis.Its objective is to study the theories related with full employment.Its nature is comparatively complex.Its main instruments are aggregate demand .aggregate supply .aggregate saving and investment.

Question 21.
What is fiscal deficit? What are its effects?
Answer:
Fiscal deficit does not take into account all types of receipts. lt does not take into account borrowings.As such .fiscal deficit is defined as the excess of all expenditure over total receipts net of borrowings. In terms of formula,Fiscal deficit = Total budget expenditure – Total budget receipts net of borrowings.

For example,in the central government’s budget of 2002- 2003 total expenditure was Rs. 172 thousand crores while receipts other than planned borrowings were Rs.125 thousand crores.As such fiscal deficit was Rs.47 thousand crores (172- 125).Fiscal deficit indicates the total amount by which the government has to resort borrowing.
Its effects are as follows :

1. It helps in increasing the amount of capital expenditure in the economy.
2. Government can collect more resources for meeting out its expenditure
3. It may be lead to inflationary pressure in the economy.
4. High fiscal deficit generally leads to wasteful and unnecessary expenditure by the government. So, fiscal deficit should be kept as low as possible.
5. The entire amount of fiscal deficit i.e.borrowings is not available for meeting expenditure because a part of it is used for interest payment.

Question 22.
What is production function ?
Answer:
A Production function expresses the technical relationship between input and output of a firm. lt tells us about the maximum quantity of output that can be produced with any given quantities of inputs.If there are two factor inputs, labour (L) and capital (K),then production function can be written as: Q = f (L,K)
Where,
Q = Quantity of output
L = Units of labour
K = Units of capital
It may be pointed here that both the inputs are necessary for the production.If any of the inputs is zero,there will be no production with both inputs and output will also be zero, As we increase the amount of any one input,output increases.

Question 23.
State the features of monopoly.
Answer:
Monopoly is the addition of two words,i.e;’Mono’+’Poly’,i.e.,single seller in the market.Being the single seller in monopoly market,a firm has full control on the supply of the commodity.In pure monopoly even no close substitute of the product is available in the market.

In monopoly ,no distinction arises between ‘firm’ and ‘ industry i.e.,firm is industry and industry is firm. According to McConnell,’ ‘Pure monopoly exists when a single firm is the sole producer of a product for which there are no close substitutes.”

Question 24.
Discuss the functions of money.
Answer:
The functions of money are as follows :

1. Primary functions
2. Secondly functions and

(1) Primary functions : Money has two prime functions:

• Medium of exchange : Money acts as a medium of exchange.In modem days,exchange is the basis of entire economy and money makes this exchange possible.At present money is the most liquid means of exchange.In modem times,money performs all functions of exchange in the economy.
• Measure of value : Money acts a unit of measure of value.In other words,it acts as a yardstick of standard measure of value to which all other things can be measured.

(2) Second functions: There are three secondly functions are as follows:

• Standard of deferred payments : Deferred payments mean those payments which are future.Money performs this function successfully because it is more durable as compared to other commodities .
• Store of value : Human being has a tendency to save a part of his income for future to fulfill his future requirements.
• Transfer of value : Money is a liquid means of exchange. Hence,purchasing power of money can easily be transferred from one person to another or one place to the other.

Question 25.
What is gross domestic product?
Answer:
Gross domestic product (GDP)refers to the money value of all the final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country.GDP is a territorial concept as it confined to domestic territoiy of a country.lt does not include net factor earning from abroad. GNP = GDP +NFYA (NFYA indicates Net factor Income from Abroa (d) .GDP is a smaller concept limited to domestic territory.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are Long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them. Each question carries 5 marks. (4×5 = 20)

Percentage Difference calculator is a free online tool to find the percent difference between two numbers.

Question 26.
What is elasticity of supply ? Explain two methods of its measurement.
Answer:
Elasticity of supply : Elasticity of supply is the measurement of quantitative change in supply due to change in price. In other words, price elasticity of supply is the proportionate change in supply consequent upon proportionate change in price. ,
According to Marshall, “Elasticity of supply refers to the change in quantity supplied of a commodity in response to change in its price.”
Elasticity of supply (es)

= \(\frac { Proportionate change in quantity supplied }{  Proportionate change in price }\)

Measurement of supply Elasticity :

(a) Proportionate Method or Percentage Method : According to this method, elasticity of supply, (es) is the ratio between ‘Percentage change in quantity supplied’ and ‘percentage change in price’ of the commodity,

es = \(\frac { Proportionate change in quantity supplied }{ Proportionate change in price }\)

= \(\frac { change in quantity supplied }{ change in price Initial quantity }\) = \(\frac { Change in price }{ Initial price }\)

(b) Geometric method : Supply elasticity can also be measured through point method or geometric method.

Question 27.
Explain important functions of a central bank.
Answer:
Functions of central Bank :

1. Monopoly in Note Issue: In modern times, central bank alone has the exclusive right to issue notes in every country of the world. The notes issued by the central bank are unlimited legal tender throughout the country.
2. Banker Agent and financial advisor to the government: Like general public government also needs various services and the central bank performs the same functions as banker to the government as a commercial bank provides to its customers.
3. Bank of Banks : It performs the functions of a banker to all other banks in the country. Central bank has almost the same relation with all other banks as a commercial bank has with its customers. Central bank keeps part of the cash balances of all commercial banks as deposit with a view to meeting liabities of these banks in times of crises. Due to this act of the central bank, it is also called custodian of cash reserves.
4. Lender of the last Resort: As banker to the bank, the central bank acts as the lender of the last resort. In other words, in case the commercial banks fail to meet their financial requirements from other words, Sources, they can, as a last resort, approach to the central bank for and advances. The central bank assists such bank through discounting of approved. Securities and bills of exchange.
5. Custodian of foreign Exchange Reserves : Central bank also acts as custodian of foreign exchange reserves. It is helpful in eliminating difficulties of balance of payments and in maintaining stable exchange rate. For mininising fluctuations in foreign exchange rate, central bank buys or sells foreign exchange in the market.
6. Function of Cleaning House : Central bank also performs the function of a cleaning house. By cleaning house function of central bank we mean settling the claims of various banks against each other with least use of cash.
7. Credit control: The most important functions of the central bank is to control the credit activities of the commercial banks. Credit control refers to the increase or decrease in the volume of credit money in accordance with the monetary requirement of the country. More expansion of credit money than necessary leads of the situation of inflation. Greater contraction of credit money, on the other land, might create a situation of deflation.
8. Development Related Functions : For promoting economic development, central bank performs following

functions:

1. It extends organised banking system and establishes new financial Institution.
2. It ensures sufficient money supply for development activities.
3. Adopts cheap money policy for Inducing investment.

Other Functions :

1. Collection of Statistics
2. Relations with International financial Institutions
3. (c) Survey of Banks.
4. Arranging seminars.

Question 28.
What is the principle of effective demand ?
Answer:
According to keynesian employment theory in short period, total production i.e. national income in capitalist economy depends on the level of employment because in short period other factors of production such as capital, technique, etc. remain constant. Employment level depends on effective demand. That level of aggregate demand at which it becomes equal to aggregate supply is called effective demand.

Question 29.
What is the function of money ?
Answer:
Function of Money :

1. Medium of exchange : Money acts as a medium of exchange. In modern days, exchange is the basis of entire economy and money makes this exchange possible. At present, money is the most liquid means of exchanges.
2. Measure of value : Money acts a unit of measure of value. In other words, it acts as a yardstick of standard measure of value of which all other things can be measured.
3. Store of. value : Human being has a tendency to save a part of his income for future to fulfil his future requirements. Store of value can take place only when person became confident to use his savings as per his requirements in future. Money has this merit because its utility is never lost.
4. Transfer of value : Money is a liquid means of exchange, Hence, purchasing power of money can easily be transferred from one person to another or one place
   to the other. Thus, in modem times has become the best means of transferring the value of money.
5. Basis of credit: In modem times credit has a vital role in the economy. At present credit is used as money on the basis of money, credit is issued, i.e., bank or financial institutions create credit on the basis of money. Thus, money is the basis of credit.
6. Basis of Distribution of social Income : In modern times production is done on collective basis in which various factors of production-land, labour, capital, organisation perform their assigned role.
7. Basis of maximum satisfaction and production : Money helps consumers in maximising theit satisfaction. A consumer maximises his satisfaction by equating the prices of each commodity with its marginal utility.
8. Guarantee of solvency : Money serves as a guarantee of solevency for an individual or institution for retaining its solevency, every individual or institution prefers to keep some money ready as cash deposits. Money deposits serve as a guarantee against money.
9. Bearer of option : Money serves as a bearer of option which implies that accumulating wealth in the form of money, we can change our decisions regarding the goods and services as and when the situation demands.

Question 30.
Explain Consumer’s equilibrium with the help of Indifference Curve Analysis.
Answer:
Hick and Hellen presented ‘indifference curve analysis as on alternative viewpoint of marshall’s utility Analysis.
Indifference curve analysis presents and ‘ordinal viewpoint’ in which behaviour of consumer is studied on the basis of ‘ordinal preferences. Indifference curve explains the consumer’s behaviour related with the combination of two goods and this consumer behaviour is explained with the help of’indifference schedule’ various combinations of two goods giving equal satisfaction to the consumer become the component of ‘indifference schedule’. When indifference schedule is represented on a graph paper we get indifference curve.

Consumer’s equilibrium in indifference curve analysis : A consumer obtains the state of equilibrium when he becomes successful in maximising his satisfaction by purchasing goods with his limited income and given prices of goods. The price line of the consumer is determined by his income and prices of the goods he becomes, with this given price line, a consumer tries to obtain the maximum possible indifference curve.

In difference curve analysis curve analysis there are two conditions of consumer’s equilibrium:

i.e. at the point of equilibrium, the marginal rate of substitution X and Y should be equal to the ratio of prices of goods X and goods Y.

For stable equilibrium indifference curve should be convex to the origin at the point of equilibrium, i.e.
MRSxy should be diminishing at the point of equilibrium.

In fig. at point K first conditions is getting fulfilled but this equilibrium is not stable because at the point K the MRS is increasing. In fig. point t is a point of equilibrium where MRS, is diminishing.

Question 31.
Define a commercial bank and discuss its functions.
Answer:
Commercial banks perform general banking functions. A commercial bank is an institution which deals with money and credit. lt accepts deposits from the public,makes the funds available to those who need them and helps in remittance of money from one place to another.

According to Banking Regulation Act,” Banking means the accepting for the purpose of lending and investment of deposits of money from the public,repayable on demand or otherwise, and withdrawable by cheque,draft,order or otherwise.”
Its functions are as follows :
(i) Accepting deposits : The prime function of the commercial bank is to accept deposits from bank.The various types of deposits accepts by the commercial bank are as follows:

1. Current Deposits: Deposits in current account are termed as current deposits. Such account are useful for traders who need money for daily transactions many times in a day.
2. Saving Deposits : Such accounts generally belong to the people having small savings and who do not require withdrawal of money many times.Interest rate in such accounts to low. such accounts promote capital formation.
3. Fixed Deposits : In fixed accounts,account is deposited for a certain fixed period(which may be 46 days or more).Depositor gets deposit receipt while depositing cash in such accounts.
4. Recurring account : Recurring deposits are certain type of fixed deposit. Depositor deposits a certain amount every month in this account.

(ii) Granting loans: The second important primary function of commercial banks is advancing of loans. After keeping certain cash reserves ,the banks lend their deposits to needy burrowers.

1. Cash Credit : In cash credit system,bank provides loans to the borrower against bonds or some other types of securities.Businessmen deposit securities with the bank.
2. Overdraft : Overdraft is permitted to those customers who have current account with the bank while cash credit can be granted to anyone.
3. Loans and advances
4. Discounting the bills of exchange
5. Investment in government securities

(iii) Credit creation :

Question 32.
Explain the kinds of exchange rate. How are fixed and flexible exchange rates different?
Answer:
Exchange rate is mainly of two types :

1. Fixed Exchange rate
2. Flexible Exchange rate

Fixed rate of exchange refers to that rate of exchange which is fixed by the government. lt generally does not change or the changes can take place within a fixed limit only.

Flexible Rate of Exchange is that rate which is determined by market forces.Change in flexible exchange  rate occur on account of change in market demand and supply. lt is also called floating exchange rate. Fixed Exchange rate is decided and declared by the government and it kept stable but Flexible Exchange rate is determined by demand and supply forces in international market.

In Fixed exchange rate, the central bank becomes ready to buy or sell its currencies at a fixed rate. In Flexible exchange rate is freely dependent on the working of foreign exchange market and the central bank has nothing to do with it. In fixed rate of exchange ,no fluctuation takes place but in flexible rate of exchange fluctuations appear.

Question 33.
Explain the different methods through which central bank controls credits.
Answer:
The different methods through which central bank controls credits are as follows :

1. Quantitative methods
2. Qualitative methods

1. Quantitative methods : It refers to those methods of credit control which are used by the central bank to influence the total volume of credit without regard for the purpose for which the credit is put.

1. Bank Rate : Bank rate policy is the indirect important method for controlling credit money. The Bank rate is the rate of which the central bank is prepared to discount the first class bills of exchanges and grant loans to commercial banks.
2. Open market operations : Open market operations affect the cash reserves of commercial banks.Consequently credit creation by commercial bank increases or decreases and money supply expands or contracts respectively.
3. Change in cash reserve ratio (CRR): Every commercial bank has to maintain a certain ratio of its deposits with the central bank.When the cash flow or credit is to be increased,cash reserve ratio is reduced and when the cash flow or credit is to reduced,cash reserve ratio is reduced.
4. Change in statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) : Every bank is required to maintain a fixed percentage of its in the form of cash or other liquid assets .called SLR.

2. Qualitative methods : This method is used by the central bank to regulate the flow of credit into particular directions of the economy.

1. Rationing of credit: Central bank is the lender of last resort. So, it can adopt the measure of credit rationing for credit control.
2. Regulation of consumer’s credit : In this method,the credit given to durable consumer goods is controlled.
3. Change in margin requirements : Marginal requirement is the difference between the current value of physical security offered for loans and the value of loans granted.
4. Direct action : Central bank can take direct action against any commercial bank if the latter do not follow central bank’s direction.

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BSEB Bihar Board Class 8 English Book Solutions Chapter 13 My Shadow

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Bihar Board Class 8 English My Shadow Text Book Questions and Answers

A. Warmer

My Shadow Poem Questions And Answers Bihar Board Question 1.
Have you ever seen your shadow ?
What do you notice about it ?
Answer:
Yes, I have seen my shadow many times. In light I see it. In dark, it disappears. Slanting light makes it taller, light coming from top makes my shadow smaller.

Class 8 English Chapter 13 Question Answer Bihar Board Question 2.
Is your shadow always of the same length on different times of the day ?
Answer:
No, it is not the same all the time. In early morning it is small, with the rising of the day it grows taller.and in noon it becomes very small. After the noon it again grows and in evening it is again smaller and at night it disappears at all.

B. Let’s Comprehend

B. 1. Think and Tell

B. 1. 1. Answer the following questions very briefly

Class 8 Bihar Board English Book Question 1.
What is the piniest thing about the speaker’s (poet’s) shadow ?
Answer:
The way he likes to grow.

Bihar Board Class 8 English Solution In Hindi Question 2.
What happened on morning before the sunrise ?
Answer:
The shadow was not any where.

Bihar Board Class 5 English Book Solution Question 3.
Does the speaker’s shadow always remain the same ?
Answer:
No.

B. 1. 2. State whether the following statements are “Tue’ or ‘False’.

My Shadow Question Answer Bihar Board Question 1.

1. The speaker’s shadow jumps after him when he jumps into his bed.
2. At times, the speaker’s shadow is taller than him.
3. The speaker’s shadow always follows him.
4. The speaker’s shadow was very active.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True

B. 2. Think and Write

B. 2. 1. Answer the following questions briefly.

Bihar Board Class 8 English Book Solution Question 1.
What does the shadow of the speaker do ?
Answer:
The shadow goes in an out with the speaker.

Bihar Board Class 8 English Question 2.
How does the shadow grow ?
Answer:
The shadow grows the way he likes to.

Class 13 English Book Bihar Board Question 3.
Why does the speaker call his shadow lazy ?
Answer:
In early morning he doesn’t get up with him.

B. 2. 2. Answer the following questions in about 50 – 60 words.

Bihar Board Class 8 English Book Question 1.
How does the shadow of the speaker behave ? Does your shadow also behave similarly ?
Answer:
The speaker’s shadow behave very funnily. Sometimes it grows very slow. Sometimes, it grows very fast. Sometimes it does not grow at all.
Yes, its right. My shadow also behaves likewise the speaker’s.

Class 8 English Book Bihar Board Question 2.
Why does the speaker call his shadow ‘the funniest thing’?
Answer:
The speaker calls his shadow ‘the funniest thing’ because it likes to grow ifi its own way. Sometimes it shoots up taller like an India rubber ball. Sometimes it gets so little that there’s none of it could be seen.

My Shadow Solutions Bihar Board Question 3.
Why do you think that the shadow of the poet did not accompany him before the sunrise ? Explain.
Answer:
The shadow of a person grows according to the light. Before sunrise there is dark. In darkness the shadow can’t grow. So, the shadow of the poet did not accompany him before the sunrise.

Question 4.
What do you like most about the poem ?
Answer:
I like the presentation of the shadow in the poem. The way if grows taller and the way it grows, smaller and disappears at all, amuses me.

C. Word Study

Look at these words

• funny – funnier – funniest
• little – more – most
• shining – more
• shining – most shining

Fill in the blanks with suitable degree of adjectives:

1. slow, slower, _______
2. _____, earlier, ______
3. fast, ______, _______
4. lovely, _____, _______
5. beautiful, ______, _____

Answer:

1. slow, slower, slowest
2. early, earlier, earliest
3. fast, faster, fastest
4. lovely, lovelier, loveliest
5. beautiful, more beautiful, most beautiful

D. 1. Grammar

Prepositions:

Read the following sentences:

• There is some water in the bottle.
• He is fond of his daughter.
• He fell off the ladder.

In sentence I, the word in shows the relation between two things – water and bottle. In sentence 2. the word of shows the relation between the adjective fond and the noun daughter. In sentence 3, the word off shows the relation between the verb fell and the noun ladder.

These words which are used before a noun or a pronoun to show its relationship with another word in the sentence are called prepositions. The noun or pronoun which follows a preposition is called its object. Note that pronouns used after a preposition should be in the objective case.

He is fond of her. (NOT He is fond of she)

A preposition may have two or more objects; e.g., Between you and me there are few secrets. (Here the pro¬nouns you and me are the objects of the preposition between.)

Prepositions show various kind of relations. The most important among them are the following:

Place:

• She ran across the street.
• The boy fell among the thorns.
• We were at the foot of the hill.
• The thief was biding behind the cupboard.

Time:

• I have a meeting in the afternoon.
• You must return before sunset.
• Wait till tomorrow.
• We waited for hours

Method and manner:

• The letter came by post,
• He cut the cake with a knife.
• They fought with courage.
• They succeeded by hard work.

Reason and Purpose:

• She died of malaria.
• He trembled with anger.
• Smoking is injurious to health.

Possession:

• He is a man of principles,
• Mumbai is the financial capital of India.
• I saw a boy with red hair.

Direction and Motion:

• He fell into the well.
• He climbed up the tree.
• She walked towards the market.
• The moon moves ground the sun.

Prepositions – Time:

Other important Prepositions:

I. Write prepositions in the blanks.

1. The railway station is ___________ Hajipur Road, the ___________ river.
2. They live ___________ the same roof.
3. I have not set in ___________ last Wednesday.
4. I have known him ___________ a long time.
5. The robbers jumped ___________ the train while it was still moving.
6. Turn ___________ the light! I have to sleep.
7. This is a matter ___________ great importance.
8. He has not yet recovered ___________ his illness.
9. They were arguing ___________ who was the first one to see the tiger.
10. Please take ___________ your boots. They’re very dirty.
11. I put my hands ___________ my eyes because I couldn’t bear to see the crocodiles fight.
12. I took us ___________ ten minutes to finish the big bowl popcorn.
13. Is there a toilet ___________ there ?
14. We paddled quickly downstream as our boat was ___________ crocodiles and hippopotamuses.
15. He jumped out ___________ the car just before it fell ahill.
16. He took an hour to choose ___________ a white dress and a black dress.
17. They decided to take legal action ___________ him for driving the influence of alcohol.
18. ___________ six years, the hospital is still construction.
19. The lorry was moving ___________ full speed when the load of duck’s eggs fell
20. It won’t fall ___________ because I have twisted the wire that post to keep it position.
21. ___________ the 1990s. he lived alone an island the coast of Africa.
22. This week she has to work ___________ midnight Monday ___________ Friday.
23. Could 1 talk to you ___________ a few minutes ?
24. Her room is ___________ the corridor the left.
25. Police want to know’ all ___________ it and are calling for witnesses.
26. He blew ___________ the lamp and lay down the ground.
27. Suddenly, the tiger appeared ___________ him. I pounced ___________ him ___________ warning.
28. The force ___________ the spring threw him away ___________ the tiger, and he jumped his feet, ready ___________ face his enemy.
29. We have not met ___________ last October.
30. Books were scattered ___________ the room.
31. Fire-crackers are set ___________ to Trighten the evil spirits.
32. Luckily, the wind died down and the fire began to bum itself ___________
33. I lived in Delhi ___________ six years.
34. The referee ordered two players ___________ the field.

Answer:

1. The railway station is on Hajipur road, beside the river.
2. They live under the same roof.
3. I have not seen him since last Wednesday.
4. I have known him for a long time.
5. The robbers jumped off the train while it was still moving.
6. Turn of the light! I have to sleep.
7. This is a matter of great importance.
8. He has not yet recovered from his illness.
9. They are arguing about who was the first one to see the tiger.
10. 10. Please take off your boots. They’re very dirty.
11. I put my hands on my eyes because I couldn’t bear to see the crocodiles fight.
12. It took us about ten minutes to finish the big bowl of popcorn.
13. Is there a toilet over there ?
14. We paddled quickly down stream as our boat was before crocodiles and hippopotamus.
15. He jumped out off the car just before it fell down a hill.
16. He took an hour to choose between a white dress and a black dress
17. They decided to take legal action against him for driving in the influence of alcohol.
18. For six years, the hospital is still under construction.
19. The lorry was moving at full speed when the load of duck’s eggs fell off.
20. It won’t fall down because I have twisted the wire with that post to keep it within position.
21. In the 1990s, he lived alone on an island along the coast of Africa.
22. This week she has to work till midnight Monday to Friday.
23. Could I talk to you for a few minutes ?
24. Her room is by the corridor to the left.
25. Police want to know all about it and are calling for witnesses.
26. He blew off the lamp and lay down on the ground.
27. Suddenly, the tiger appeared before him. It pounced on him without warning.
28. The force of the spring threw him away towards the tiger, and he jumped at his feet, ready to face his enemy.
29. We have not met since last October.
30. Books were scattered around the room.
31. Fire-crackers are set to frighten the evil spirits.
32. Luckily, the wind died down and the fire began to bum it self down.
33. I lived in Delhi for six years.
34. The referee ordered two players out of the field

D. 2. Rhyme Time

Example:
Me in the poem rhymes with ‘see’. Pick out some other rhyming words from the poem.

Question 1.
Add two more rhyming words to the following:

1. heel, feel, ______, _______
2. lazy, hazy, ______, _______
3. sun, bun, ______, _______
4. shoot, boot, ______, _______
5. slow, blow, ______, _______
6. thin, ring, ______, _______
7. ball, hall, ______, _______
8. cup, up, ______, _______
9. bed, red, ______, _______
10. pick, lick, ______, _______

Answer:

1. heel, feel, kneel, reel
2. lazy, hazy, crazy, daisy
3. sun, bun, nun, ton
4. shoot, boot, hoot, jute
5. slow, blow, glow, flow
6. thing, ring, sing, king
7. ball, hall, call, mall
8. cup, up, pup, sup
9. bed, red, head, said
10. pick, lick, tick, chick

E. Let’s Talk

Question 1.
All of you should look at your shadow at different times of the day and note how different it looks ever time and why. Discuss whether your shadow behaves differently from the shadows of other.
Answer:
Prakash: Very early morning, our shadow its not seen when the sun is not up.
Neha: With the rise of the sun, our shadow grows taller.
Rakesh: In noon, the sun being at the top of our head our shadow is not seen.
Harsh: After the noon, till evening again our shadow grows taller.
Moni: After evening, with the fall of night, till morn again our shadow gets disappeared.

F. Composition

Question 1.
Write a paragraph oh ‘What I like and dislike about my shadow’ ?
Answer:
I like my shadow growing taller. I like my shadow going with me and following me. I like to play with my shadow. I like to run and a muse with it. When my shadow is very taller than me I don’t like it. I also don’t like my shadow going between my heels. And the most annoying thing about my shadow that I dislike is, when my shadow disappears at all at night.

G. Translation

Question 1.
Translate the following into English
मुझे प्रकाश में अपनी परछाई दिखती है। जब मैं चलता हूँ वह भी चलती है। जब मैं रूकता हूँ वह भी रूकती है। परन्तु वह अंधेरे में छिप जाती है। कभी वह बहुत लम्बी होती है और कभी वह बहुत छोटी हो जाती है। उसका रहस्य मुझे समझ में नहीं आता है।
Answer:
In light, my shadows is seen. When I walk, she also walks with me. When I stop, she also stops. But in dark she hides away. Sometimes she is very tall and sometimes she becomes very short. I can’t understand her secret.

H. Activity

Question 1.
Moving a light source closer to an object can make its shadow grow larger while moving the light source away can have the opposite effect. Experiment and see what happens to the shadows of different objects when you tilt the light source or change its brightness, what happens to the shadow if you make the light source very dim ?
Answer:
In dim light our shadow can’t be seen. Do the experiment yourselves.

Question 2.
See how sunlight creates shadows with various objects such as trees, houses and cars. Learn how the sun’s position in the sky affects the size of shadows.
Answer:
When the sun rays is slanting, the shadows of different objects grow longer. And when the sun is at the top straight, the shadows of objects go smallers.

My Shadow Summary in English

‘My Shadow’ is a entertaining poem. The poem is Penned by the poet, Robert Louis Stevenson. The speaker of the poem is a child. The child is wondering about his shadow. The shadow keeps on changing. Sometimes it shoots up, grows up taller than him. Sometimes it becomes very little and vanishes too. This surprises the speaker. He makes a search for his shadow and explains it.

My Shadow Summary in Hindi

‘माई शैडो’ (मेरी परछाई) एक मनोरंजक कविता है। प्रस्तुत कविता के कवि हैं रॉबर्ट लुईस स्टीवेन्सन । कविता का वक्ता एक बालक है। वह बालक अपनी परछाईं को लेकर आश्चर्य में पड़ा रहता है। उसकी परछाईं बार-बार बदलती रहती है। कभी तो वह उससे भी बड़ी हो जाती है और कभी तो वह अत्यंत छोटी हो जाती है और कभी तो एकदम से गायब हो जाती है। यह बात वक्ता को आश्चर्य में डाल देती है। वह अपनी छाया की तलाश करत है, उसके बारे में जानकारी इकट्ठा करता है और सबको बताता है।

My Shadow Hindi Translation of The Chapter

Shadow (n) [शैडो] = परछाईं, छाया। Use (n) [यूज] = व्यवहार, प्रयोग । More (adj) [मोर] = अधिक, ज्यादा । Very (adj) [वेरी] = बहुत । Like (adj) [लाइक] = जैसा, समान । Heels up (phr) [हील्स अप] = ऊपर की ओर उठता है। Jump (v) [जम्प] = उछलना । Funniest (adj) [फनीएस्ट] = सबसे मजेदार । मजा किया। Way (n) [वे] = तरीका । Proper (adj)[प्रॉपर] = उचित, योग्य । Always (adv) [ऑलवेज) = सदा, हमेशा । Shoots up (phr) [शूट्स अप] = आगे को बढ़ जाता है। Indian rubber ball (n) [इण्डियन रबड़ बॉल] = उछलने वाली भारतीय गेंद । Early (adj) [अर्ली] = सवेरे । Rose (v)[रोज] = जगा, उठा । Found (v) (फाउन्ड] = पाया । Shining (adj)[शाइनिंग] = चमकता हुआ। Dew (n) [ड्यू] = ओस | Buttercup (n) [बटर कप] = एक प्रकार का पीला फूल । Arrant (adj) [एरेन्ट] = बुरा । Sleep (adj) [स्लीप] = निद्राग्रस्त, सोया हुआ-सा । Fast asleep (phr) [फास्ट अस्लीप] = गहरी नींद में सोया हुआ।

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Bihar Board 10th English Objective Questions and Answers

BSEB Bihar Board 10th English Objective Answers poem 1 God Made The Country

God Made The Country Questions And Answers Bihar Board 10th Question 1.
Who wrote the poetry ‘God Made The Country’ ?
(A) William Wordsworth
(B) William Cowper
(C) Alexander Pope
(D) Durga Prasad
Answer:
(B) William Cowper

God Made The Country Bihar Board 10th Question 2.
Panda William Cowper may be said to be giving in his poems a foretaste of the poetry of………………?
(A) Wordsworth
(B) Puran Singh
(C) Laxmi Prasad
(D) Durga Prasad Panda
Answer:
(B) Puran Singh

God Made The Country Poem Bihar Board 10th Question 3.
According to poetry who made the town ?
(A) God
(B) Government
(C) Man
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Man

God Made The Country Question And Answer Bihar Board 10th Question 4.
Where do you find health and virtue ?
(A) Country
(B)Town
(C) Village
(D) Space
Answer:
(C) Village

God Made The Country And Man Made The Town Bihar Board 10th Question 5.
What has made the man idle ?
(A) Luxurious life
(B) Comfortable devices
(C) Packed foods
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Comfortable devices

God Made The Country Man Made The Town Bihar Board 10th Question 6.
Why were groves planted ?
(A) To comfort us
(B) To provide us Loaries
(C) To provide us fuel
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) To comfort us

Bihar Board Class 10th English Objective Question Question 7.
What is the poet’s desire ?
(A) To enjoy comfortable conditions
(B) To enjoy luxury
(C) To energy green environment
(D) The pleasure of natural objects
Answer:
(D) The pleasure of natural objects

10th Class English Objective Questions Bihar Board Question 8.
According to the poet, health and .virtue can be found in
(A) Towns
(B) Cities
(C) Villages
(D) Factories
Answer:
(B) Cities

Question 9.
The town people do not enjoy any real
(A) Scenery
(B) Food
(C) Drink
(D) Fun
Answer:
(A) Scenery

Question 10.
The villagers can do very well without the …………..lights of the town.
(A) Grand
(B) Dim
(C) Shining
(D) Soft
Answer:
(A) Grand

Question 11.
On hearing the songs of the towns, singing-birds like the ……………..are afraid and go away. .
(A) Parrot
(B) Thrush
(C) Cuckoo
(D) Sparrow
Answer:
(B) Thrush

Question 12.
The poet calls things like health and virtue.
(A) Gifts
(B) Prizes
(C) Curses
(D) Defects
Answer:
(A) Gifts

Question 13.
Who created the poem ‘God Made The Country’?
(A) William Cowper
(B) William Wordsworth
(C) Alexander Pope
(D) Durga Prasad Panda
Answer:
(A) William Cowper

Question 14.
William Cowper may be said to be giving in his poems a foretaste of the poetry of………………….?
(A) Wordsworth
(B) Puran Singh
(C) Laxmi Prasad
(D) Durga Prasad Panda
Answer:
(A) Wordsworth

Question 15.
According to the poet, health and virtue can be found in
(A) towns
(B) cities
(C) villages
(D) factories
Answer:
(C) villages

Question 16.
The town’s people do not enjoy any real
(A) scenery
(B) food
(C) drink
(D) fun
Answer:
(A) scenery

Question 17.
In this poem the narrator is
(A) a townsman
(B) god
(C) country
(D) a villager
Answer:
(D) a villager

Question 18.
William Cowper was born in
(A) 1721
(B) 1711
(C) 1730
(D) 1731
Answer:
(D) 1731

Question 19.
William Cowper died in
(A) 1805
(B) 1798
(C) 1800
(D) 1810
Answer:
(C) 1800

Question 20.
Like whom the poet did not hesitate in giving ciear-cut opinion about the issues of his time?
(A) William Cowper
(B) Keats
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Thooran
Answer:
(C) Wordsworth

Question 21.
A two-wheeled horse-drawn vehicle used in olden times
(A) cart
(B) chart
(C) chariot
(D) none
Answer:
(C) chariot

Question 22.
Why is the thrush scared and the nightingale offended?
(A) to hear the vice of the poet
(B) to hear the songs of village
(C) to hear the songs of town
(D) none of these
Answer:
(C) to hear the songs of town

Question 23.
Health and goodness can make our life
(A) harder
(B) Comic
(C) sweet
(D) confound
Answer:
(C) sweet

Question 24.
According to the poet who made the town?
(A) God
(B) Government
(C) Man
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Man

Question 26.
That……………….holds out to all, should most abound.
(A) life
(B) virtue
(C) groves
(D) town
Answer:
(A) life

Question 27.
What has made the man idle?
(A) Luxurious life
(B) Comfortable devices
(C) Packed foods
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Comfortable devices

Question 28.
Why were groves planted?
(A) To comfort us
(B) To provide us loaries
(C) To provide us fuel
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) To comfort us

Question 29.
What is the poet’s desire?
(A) To enjoy comfortable conditions
(B) To enjoy luxury
(C) To energy green environment
(D) The pleasure of natural objects
Answer:
(D) The pleasure of natural objects

Question 30.
The villagers can do very well without the…………….lights of the town.
(A) grand
(B) dim
(C) soft
(D) shining
Answer:
(A) grand

Question 31.
On hearing the songs of the towns, singing-birds like the……………….are afraid and go away.
(A) parrot
(B) thrush
(C) cuckoo
(D) sparrow
Answer:
(B) thrush

Question 32.
Listening to the……………..songs the nightingale becomes mute in a town.
(A) radio
(B) television
(C) headphone
(D) gramophone
Answer:
(D) gramophone

Question 33.
Where is the life least threatened?
(A) in towns
(B) in the fiends and groves
(C) in villages
(D) none of these
Answer:
(B) in the fiends and groves

Question 34.
What are planted to console the pensive wanderer?
(A) grooves
(B) shades
(C) walls
(D) factories
Answer:
(A) grooves

Question 35.
The moonbeam slides between ……………………
(A) ‘he ho ises
(B) the sleeping leaves
(C) shades
(D) none of these
Answer:
(B) the sleeping leaves

Question 36.
The thrush departs …………….
(A) sacred
(B) gladly
(C) scared
(D) boldly
Answer:
(C) scared

Question 37.
The poet calls things like health and virtue
(A) Gifts
(B) Prizes
(C) Curses
(D) Defects
Answer:
(A) Gifts

Question 38.
Where do you find fields and groves?
(A) in villages
(B) in towns
(C) in forests
(D) in cities
Answer:
(A) in villages

Question 39.
What is the source of light in Villages in the evening?
(A) seen
(B) moon
(C) lamp
(D) none of these
Answer:
(B) moon

Question 40.
Where is life better?
(A) in towns
(B) in villages
(C) in markets
(D) in homes
Answer:
(B) in villages

 

Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Questions and Answers

BSEB Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Answers Godhuli Gadya Chapter 1 कहानी का प्लाँट

कहानी का प्लॉट Objective Bihar Board 9th Hindi प्रश्न 1.
शिवपूजन सहाय का जन्म किस जिले में हुआ था?
(a) आरा
(b) बक्सर
(c) पटना
(d) बनारस
उत्तर-
(b) बक्सर

कहानी का प्लॉट का प्रश्न उत्तर Pdf Bihar Board 9th Hindi प्रश्न 2.
शिवपूजन सहाय का जन्म कब हुआ था ?
(a) 1893 ई. में
(b) 1993 ई. में
(c) 1884 ई. में
(d) 1994 ई. में
उत्तर-
(a) 1893 ई. में

9th Class Objective Question Hindi Bihar Board प्रश्न 3.
शिवपूजन सहाय की मृत्यु कब हुआ?
(a) 1963 ई. में
(b) 1863 ई. में
(c) 1964 ई. में .
(d) 1965 ई. में .
उत्तर-
(a) 1963 ई. में

Class 9 Hindi Objective Questions Bihar Board प्रश्न 4.
उनका एकमात्र उपन्यास कौन-सा था?
(a) देहाती दुनिया
(b) शहरी दुनिया
(c) विदेशी दुनिया
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(a) देहाती दुनिया

कहानी का प्लॉट शिवपूजन सहाय प्रश्न उत्तर Bihar Board 9th Hindi प्रश्न 5.
10वीं की परीक्षा पास करने के बाद उन्होंने कहाँ नौकरी की?
(a) बक्सर
(b) आरा
(c) बनारस
(d) पटना
उत्तर-
(c) बनारस

कहानी का प्लॉट का प्रश्न उत्तर Bihar Board 9th Hindi प्रश्न 6.
शिवपूजन सहाय की रचनावली कितने खंडों में थी?
(a) एक
(b) दो
(c) चार
(d) पाँच
उत्तर-
(c) चार

9th Class Ka Godhuli Bhag 2 Bihar Board प्रश्न 7.
उन्होंने किस प्रतिष्ठित पत्रिकाओं में संपादन किया ?
(a) गंगा
(b) हिमालय
(c) यमुना
(d) कावेरी
उत्तर-
(b) हिमालय

Bihar Board Solution Class 9 Objective Question प्रश्न 8.
शिवपूजन सहाय अपने समय के कैसे व्यक्ति थे ?
(a) लोकप्रिय
(b) सम्मानित
(c) लोकप्रिय, सम्मानित
(d) बहुचर्चित
उत्तर-
(c) लोकप्रिय, सम्मानित

9 Class Ka Hindi Objective Question Bihar Board प्रश्न 9.
बनारस में कौन-सा नौकरी कर रहे थे ?
(a) नकलनवीस
(b) वकील
(c) शिक्षक
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(a) नकलनवीस

9th Class Hindi Objective Questions Bihar Board प्रश्न 10.
इस कहानी में लेखक ने किसका स्थान निर्धारित किया है ?
(a) नर
(b) नारी
(c) नर-नारी
(d) बालक
उत्तर-
(b) नारी

प्रश्न 11.
कौन-से आंदोलन के बाद उन्होंने सरकारी नौकरी को त्यागपत्र दे दिया?
(a) असहयोग आंदोलन
(b) नर्मदा आंदोलन
(c) नमक आंदोलन
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(a) असहयोग आंदोलन

प्रश्न 12.
हिंदी की प्रतिष्ठित पत्रिका के कौन-से संपादक मंडल में थे ?
(a) मतवाला
(b) गीतवाला
(c) रथवाला
(d) भाग्यवाला
उत्तर-
(a) मतवाला

प्रश्न 13.
कौन-सी राष्ट्रभाषा परिषद उनकी कल्पना का साकार रूप है ?
(a) बिहार
(b) बिहारशरीफ
(c) झारखण्ड
(d) उड़िसा
उत्तर-
(a) बिहार

प्रश्न 14.
शिवपूजन सहाय के रचनावली कहाँ से प्रकाशित की गई है ?
(a) बनारस
(b) पटना
(c) आरा
(d) बक्सर
उत्तर-
(b) पटना

प्रश्न 15.
अपने कौन से बेटे की पत्नी बनने का दुर्भाग्य स्वीकार करती है ?
(a) सौतेले बेटे
(b) अपना बेटे
(c) लेखक के बेटे
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(a) सौतेले बेटे

प्रश्न 16.
कहानी का प्लॉट पाठ के लेखक कौन है ? .
(a) शिवपूजन सहाय
(b) हजारी प्रसाद
(c) विष्णु शर्मा
(d) मोहन सहाय
उत्तर-
(a) शिवपूजन सहाय

प्रश्न 17.
तिलक-दहेज के जमाने में किसको पैदा करना मूर्खता है? .
(a) लड़का
(b) लड़की
(c) बेटा
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(b) लड़की

प्रश्न 18.
मुंशीजी की पुत्री का नाम क्या था?
(a) भगजोगनी
(b) लीलावती
(c) रौशनी
(d) मंगू
उत्तर-
(a) भगजोगनी

प्रश्न 19.
दारोगाजी की कौन बारूद की पुड़िया थी? ।
(a) घोड़ी
(b) घोड़ा
(c) हाथी
(d) कुत्ता
उत्तर-
(a) घोड़ी

प्रश्न 20.
सुंदरता में भगजोगनी अँधेर घर की क्या थी?
(a) दीपक
(b) चिराग
(c) सुंदर
(d) चतुर.
उत्तर-
(a) दीपक

प्रश्न 21.
दारोगाजी के जमाने में मुंशीजी खूब किस चित्र के दीए जलाए करते थे?
(a) घी के
(b) तेल के
(c) पानी के
(d) किरोसीन के
उत्तर-
(a) घी के

प्रश्न 22.
इस युग में क्या प्रबल हो रही है?
(a) अबला
(b) तबला
(c) ढोलक
(d) वाद्ययंत्र
उत्तर-
(a) अबला

प्रश्न 23.
बुढ़ापे में मुंशीजी को क्या पैदा हो गई?
(a) लड़की
(b) लड़का
(c) लड़का-लड़की
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(a) लड़की

प्रश्न 24.
थानेदार की कमाई और किसका तापना दोनों बराबर है ?
(a) फूस का
(b) माघ का
(c) चैत्र का
(d) फागुन का
उत्तर-
(a) फूस का

प्रश्न 25.
शिवपूजन सहाय किस विषय के लेखक थे?
(a) हिंदी
(b) अंग्रेजी
(c) हिंदी कथा साहित्य
(d) हिंदी, अंग्रेजी
उत्तर-
(c) हिंदी कथा साहित्य

प्रश्न 26.
तिलक-दहेज क्रूरता का शिकार कौन हुआ?
(a) भगजोगनी
(b) शिवपूजन सहाय
(c) थानेदार
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(a) भगजोगनी

प्रश्न 27.
‘कहानी का प्लॉट’ शीर्षक पाठ गद्य की कौन-सी विधा है ?
(a) निबंध
(b) रेखाचित्र
(c) कहानी
(d) जीवनी
उत्तर-
(c) कहानी

प्रश्न 28.
मुंशीजी के बड़े भाई किस पद पर कार्य करते मरे ?
(a) किरानी के पद पर
(b) दारोगा के पद पर
(c) शिक्षक के पद पर
(d) इंजीनियर के पद पर
उत्तर-
(b) दारोगा के पद पर

प्रश्न 29.
कुछ लोगों के कथनानुसार गरीब घर की लड़की कैसी होती है ?
(a) मुँहफट और चंचल
(b) सुस्त और कमजोर
(c) कर्मठ और होशियार
(d) चटोर और कंजूस
उत्तर-
(d) चटोर और कंजूस

प्रश्न 30.
अंत में भगजोगनी किसकी पत्नी बनकर जीती रही?..
(a) एक गरीब किसान की
(b) अपने सौतेले पुत्र की
(c) एक बूढ़े धनवान की
(d) एक मालदार नेता की
उत्तर-
(b) अपने सौतेले पुत्र की

प्रश्न 31.
भगजोगनी का सौंदर्य किसका स्वर्गीय धन बना हुआ है ?
(a) उसके स्वर्गीय वृद्ध पति का
(b) उसके चहेते युवकों का
(c) उसके वर्तमान नवयुवक पति का
(d) इनमें से किसी का नहीं
उत्तर-
(c) उसके वर्तमान नवयुवक पति का

प्रश्न 32.
दारोगा किसकी मुहब्बत से दारोगा के पद पर ही रह गए?
(a) अपनी भाई की
(b) भतीती भगजोगनी की
(c) संपत्ति की कमाई की
(d) सात रुपये की घोड़ी की
उत्तर-
(d) सात रुपये की घोड़ी की

प्रश्न 33.
मुंशीजी ने क्या बेचकर दारोगाजी का श्राद्ध किया ?
(a) सोने के जेवर
(b) कीमती जमीन
(c) मकान का हिस्सा
(d) कीमती तुर्की घोड़ी
उत्तर-
(d) कीमती तुर्की घोड़ी

प्रश्न 34.
मुंशीजी की किस्मत पर कैसी मार पड़ी
(a) पहली
(b) दुहरी
(c) तीसरी ।
(d) चौथी
उत्तर-
(b) दुहरी

प्रश्न 35.
भाई दारोगाजी की मृत्यु के बाद मुंशीजी किसको वर्णनातीत है ?
(a) गरीबी
(b) अमीरी
(c) कंगाल
(d) धनवान
उत्तर-
(a) गरीबी

Bihar Board Solutions for Class 11 English aids you to prepare all the topics in it effectively. You need not worry about the accuracy of the Bihar Board Solutions for Class 11 Poem Chapter 2 The Marriage of True Minds Questions and Answers as they are given adhering to the latest exam pattern and syllabus guidelines. Enhance your subject knowledge by preparing from the Chapter wise Bihar Board Class 11th English Book Solutions and clarify your doubts on the corresponding topics.

Rainbow English Book Class 11 Solutions Poem 2 The Marriage of True Minds

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Bihar Board Class 11 English The Marriage of True Minds Textual Questions and Answers

[A] 1. Work in small groups and discuss these questions :

Marriage Of True Minds Meaning Bihar Board Question 1.
What is love ? Can there be different manifestations of love ?
Answer:
Love is an eternal boon which has no alternation. Love is true and permanent. There can be no different manifestations of love because love is true and eternal.

Marriage Of Two Minds Bihar Board Question 2.
You love different persons in your life : Your parents, brothers sisters, friends, wife etc. What is common about your love to each of them ?
Answer:
Love with family members, friends and neighbours is selfish love. It is common with all. I love them because they satisfy me in many ways. This is not a true love. Love has no selfishness.

The Marriage Of True Minds Bihar Board Question 3.
At times you feel drawn to opposite sex ? What is that which draw you to him/her : love or mere physical attraction ? How will you differentiate ?
Answer:
Sometimes physical attraction attracts some one. For the time being he/she looses his/her temper and wants to become one. But this love is not love. It is only bodily attraction which ruins after some time.

[B] Answer the following questions briefly :

The Marriage Of True Minds Summary Bihar Board Question 1.
What is meant by ‘the marriage of true minds ?
Answer:
‘Marriage of true minds’ means mixing up of two into one heartily for the life long. A true lover lives for his love and dies for his love. This type of love is called marriage of true minds.

The Marriage Of True Minds Meaning Bihar Board Question 2.
What is ‘an ever-fixed mark’ ?
Answer:
True love is permanent. No wordy attractions and activities have power to interfere in it. True love is eternal, so it is called ‘ever-fixed mark’.

To The Marriage Of True Minds Bihar Board Question 3.
What is meant by ‘Time’s fool’ ? Is love ‘Time’s fool ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
Time’s fool means a love for a short period. Real love is not time’s fool. Love is constant. It remains for life long.

Marriage Of The Minds Bihar Board Question 4.
What kind of love alters when it finds alterations ?
Answer:
Artificial love alters. It varies time to time. It has no existence. So when one sees or gets chance, shows affection and other time forgets. This kind of love is not love. It is only bodily satisfaction for the time being.

The Marriage Of True Minds Summary In Hindi Bihar Board Question 5.
Can external force change love ?
Answer:
No, external force has no power to change true love.

Class 11 English Poem 2 Question Answer Bihar Board Question 6.
How does Shakespeare depict permanent nature of love ?
Answer:
Shakespeare has compared love with the pole star which never changes its place and twinkles. Even in great disturbances it never shakes because it is eternal.

Question 7.
Why is love compared to a pole star ?
Answer:
A pole star is fixed at the same place always. It does not move from its permanent aboard. So like polestar love has also no alteration. True love lasts for ever. So love is compared with pole star.

Question 8.
Can you tag a price to love ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
Love is priceless. No can pay price for love. So it is never tagged as worldly materials.

Question 9.
Can time affect love ?
Answer:
No, time cannot affect love.

Question 10.
If you have to choose between worldly, pleasure and the goal of your life, what will you choose ? Why ? give two reasons. [Board Model 2009 (A)]
Answer:
(a) If I have to choose between wordly pleasure and the goal of my life I will choose the later. For, wordly pleasures will not last long. But if I mach my goal. I will attain permanent bliss. Besides, a man who indulges in worldly pleasure cannot achieve much in life. He will do nothing so that peeterity will remain by him.

Question 11.
Describe after Shakespeare the nature of true love. [Board Model 2009 (A)]
Answer:
True Love is described by Shakespeare remains unaffected by obstacles or impediments. It can with stand any tempestor trouble and be a true guide in all circumstances. It is even fixed and cannot be submitted. Even time can not fate true love.

[C] Long Answer Type Questions :

Question 1.
Attempt, after Shakespeare, a comprehensive definition of love.
Answer:
William Shakespeare in his poem “The Marriage of True Minds” has given a comprehensive definition of love. According to the poet, love means a union of two souls. To him, it is a marriage of true minds. Love is not love which changes when ever it disires to change. A love cannot be removed when a remover wants to remove it. Love does not allow hindrances and obstacles to come. So, a true lover lives for his love and dies for his love. This type of love is called marriage of true minds.

According to the poet, true love is permanent. True love is eternal. So, it is called ever-fixed mark. Real love is not for a short period. It remains for life long.

An artificial love may be changed, it has no existance. This kind of love is not love. A true love is compared to pole star. A pole star is fixed at the same place; It does not move from its permanent place. So like a pole star love has no alteration. Love is priceless. No one can pay price for love. Time can not affect love.

Question 2.
Describe, after Shakespeare, the nature of true love.
Answer:
William Shakespeare in his poem “The Marriage of True Minds” has very successfully described the nature of true love. True love is a sweet gift of nature. True love means mixing up of two true hearts and minds in one. It has got the relation with two souls. Physical attraction has no value in true love. It is nature’s greatest boon. A true lover never changes his attitude. He has no different manifestations of love. Even in great troubles a true love can not go back or forget his love. A true love is stable and permanent. It is just like a pole star which never changes its place. A true love is eternal. It is spiritual.

Question 3.
What in your opinion is love related to-spirit or physical lust ?
Answer:
In my opinion love is related to spirit. Love is spiritual not physical. It is a union of two soul’s or spirits, It has no relation with physical attraction. It is for a short time. It is not permanent. So love is eternal, permanent and for life long.

Question 4.
Narrate the gist of the poem in your own words.
Or, Give the main idea of the poem. “The Marriage of True Minds.”
Or, Summaries the poem “The Marriage of True Minds”.
Answer:
“The Marriage of True Minds” is a sonnet composed by William Shakespeare. In this poem the poet has described the nature of true love. To him, true love is sweet gift of nature. A real love means mixing up of two souls and minds in one. It is an eternal gift. Love is not mere physical attraction. There can not be different manifestations of love because love is true and enternal. A true lover loves for his love. This type of love is called marriage of true minds. True love is permanent. It is called ‘an ever fixed mark’. It is not for short period. It is constant. It remains for life long.

Artificial love alters when it finds alteration. This kind of love is not love. It is only bodily satisfaction for the time being. A true love is like a pole star that does not change its place. It is fixed at the same place. It lasts for ever. So love is compared to a pole star. Time also can not affect love.

Question 5.
Can time control love ? What can it do at its best ?
Answer:
Time can not control love. William Shakespeare in his poem, “The Marriage oi True Minds” has clearly described that time can not control love. In third stranza of the poem, the-poet has said—“Love’s not Time’s fool”. It means love is not for short period. Love cannot be changed in hour’s and weeks. It is permanent. It bears it out even to the edge of doom. Time can creates troubles, disturbances and obstacles. But love can stay beyond time. It can not be restricted by hours, weeks, months and years.

Question 6.
Comment on the treatment of the theme of Love and Time in the poem.
Answer:
The poem “Marriage of True Minds” has been composed by William Shakespeare. In this poem the poet has described the theme of love, and time. According to the poet love is the theme of his poem. The poem is a sonnet. The poet has described the nature, the definition, the importance and the duration of love throughout the poem. The whole theme of the poem revoles round the discretion of love.

To him love is a union of two souls. Love is spiritual not physical. It is permanent. It is external. It is for life long, it is not for short period. It can not be controlled by time. Physical attraction and outer disturbances can not harm love, So the poet has very successfully made clear the theme of Love and Time in his poem. “The Marriage of True Minds”.

Question 7.
How is the changelessness of love brought out in the first two quatrains ?
Answer:
In the first two stanzas of the poem “The Marriage of True Minds”, Willian Shakespeare has very successfully brought out the changelessness of love. The poet says that not one should be allowed to make hindrances to the marriage of true minds. To him, true love is the union of two pure souls and minds. According to the poet, the love that makes alterations is not love. Love is not the choice of the remover who removes (change) his love according to his convenience.

In the second stanza, the poet says that love is ‘an ever-fixed mark’. It means true love is permanent. Love is like a pole star. A pole star is fixed at a particular place. It does not move from its permanent place. So, like pole star love has also no alterations. True love lasts for ever. It can not be changed.

Question 8.
What does the speaker declare in the final couplet ? What makes him do so?
Answer:
The poet in the final (last) two lines wants to confirm what he has said about true love. He is confident that true love is eternal, unchangeable and permanent. It is a union of two hearts, not of two bodies. Love is spritual not physical.

The poet is so confident about his thought that he says that if my opinion about true love is wrong and if this is proved that ‘I am wrong it means I never wrote such poem and it is also true that no man has ever loved’ ’ It means if the poet is wrong, the story of true love, the dictum of true love is also wrong and no man in future will tell the story of true love nor no man will be ever loved.

Question 9.
How is love contrasted with Physical love ?
Answer:
According to the poet William Shakespeare, there is great contrast between spiritual love and physical love. Spiritual love is true love. It is the marriage of two souls. Spiritual love is eternal, It is permanent. It does not change with hours, weeks and months, Real love is not for short period. It is for life long. A true love is a sweet gift of nature. A real love is mixing up of two souls and minds in one. Love is an ever-fixed marks. It means true love is permanent. True love is like a pole-star. A pole star is fixed at a particular place. So, like pole-star spiritual love has also no alterations. It lasts for ever.

Unlike spiritual love, physical love is not permanent. According to the poet, the love that makes physical attractions is not real love. It is for short period. Physical love is over, the sooner physical satisfaction is fulfilled.

Question 10.
Pick out metaphors used in the poem and comment on their implied meaning.
Answer:
A metaphor is a figure speech that makes a comparison, usually implied not overtly stated, between two seemingly unlike things. In the poem “The Marriage of True Minds” the poet William Shakespeare has used metaphors. The very title of the poem” The marriage of True Minds” is a metaphor. The word ‘marriage’ is used metaphorically. Its implied meaning is ‘union’. True Minds’ is also used metaphorically. Its implied meaning is ‘true lovers’. The word “Tempests” is’also used metaphorically.Its implied meaning is ‘great disturbances’. The other metaphors are noted below :

Question 11.
Discuss ‘The Marriage of True Minds’ as a sonnet
Answer:
A sonnet is a poem of 14 lines. It is either consisting of an octave followed by a sestet (Petrarchan sonnet) or three quatrains followed by a couplet with a special arrangement of rhymes. A sonnet consisting of three quatrains followed by a couplet is called Shakespearean sonnet. A sonnet is concentrated expression of some single though or feeding or situation. Subjectivity, spontaneity, sincerity, reflection, music and melody are some other important characteristics of a sonnet.

“The Marriage of True Minds” is a Shakespearean sonnet. The sonnet consists of three quatrains followed by a couplet with a special arrangement of rhymes. The first three stanza consists of four lines each. The last stanza consists of two lines.

The poem has expression of single though. The sonnet has described the definition and nature of love. The theme of the complete poem is one and that is the description of true love. In short, the poem “The Marriage of True Minds” has all the characteristics of a sonnet. Subjectivity, spontaneity .sincerity, reflection, music and melody are the main characteristics of this poem.

C. 3. Composition:

Question a.
Write a letter in about 150 words to your friend describing how your love for someone made you more determined to achieve something.
Answer:

Naya Tola
Patna
10 March, 2013

DearRakesh,

I am quite well here along with the member of my family and hope that you will be the same. Today I am going to disclose a secret through this letter.

You know that since school-days I wanted to be a college-teacher. You often asked me about my inspiration. Today I tell you that my father was my inspiration. He wanted me to be a college-teacher.

As I loved him too much, after his death my sole aim was to be a college- teacher one day. My love to him to fulfill his wish made me more determined to achieve my goal. I worked heart and soul to achieve my goal. Though my father’s death casually brought before me a lot of problems as to earn, to take care of a large family and to continue studies in crisis, yet my love to him worked as a guiding and an inspiring force. The more the problems came to me the more my love to my father increased and deepened and worked as an inspiring force. Thank God ! Ultimately I succeeded in achieving my goal.

With best wishes.

Yours affectionately
Anshu Singh

Question b.
Write a paragraph in about 100 words on ‘Love and Life’.
Answer:
Love and Life

It is an old saying that ‘Love is God and God is Love’. This saying has complete truth in it. Really without love life is nothing. As a child is bom, his family begins to love him. As he grows, the society begins to love him and so does he. As a youth, he loves his beloved. Later on as a husband, he begins to love his wife,children and his nation. This is a common thing. Besides it, a man loves other creatures and natural objects. The last stanza of Coleridge’s ‘The Rime of the Ancient Mariner’ is its fine example. To quote :

“He prayeth best, who loveth best
All things both great and small;
For the dear God who loveth us, .
He made and loveth all.”

Thus, we should love all the creatures of the earth. Without love life is hellish.

D. 1. Dictionary Use :

Question 1.
Look up a dictionary and write two meanings of each of the following words-the one in which it is used in the lesson and the other which is more common : marriage, admit, bark, edge
Answer:
marriage – (i) union (ii) a social custom in which a man and a woman unites together as a husband and wife
admit – (i) give leave to enter to (ii) acknowledge as true
bark – (i) ship (ii) skin of tree
edge – (i) day (ii) margin/border

D. 2. Word-meaning:

Question 1.
Match the words given in Column ‘A’ with their meanings given in Column ‘B’:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (h)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (a)
6. (f)
7. (g)
8. (b)

E. GRAMMAR:

Ex 1. Mark carefully the structure of the sentence given below and make five sentences of your own on the same pattern.
Let me put my car in the garage.
Answer:
Pattern : Let + Sub (‘I’ in objective case) + Possessive Adj.+ Noun+O.W.

1. Let me write my notes today.
2. Let me have my dinner in the hotel tonight.
3. Let me do my duty now.
4. Let me have my bathe in the rive today.
5. Let me keep my documents in your bag.

Ex. 2. Read the following lines carefully :
It is the star to every Wand’ ring bark
Love’s not Time’s fool.

Mark the use of apostrophe to the missing letter ‘e’ in ‘wandering’ and ‘i’ in ‘Love is’. The latter is the example of contraction-of. auxiliary verb; e.g. ‘I’m’ for ‘I am’ etc. Note also the use of apostrophe in ‘Time’s fool’ to show possession or ownership.

Now find out examples of apostrophe in the poem and decide why apostrophe has been used in each of them.
Answer:
Besides ‘wand’ ring, ‘Love’s’ and ‘Time’s fool’, ‘Worth’s’ and ‘Sickle’scompass’ are examples of apostrophe. In ‘Worth’s’ it has been used as the example of the contracted form of auxiliary verb (worth is) and in ‘Sickle’s compass’ it has been used to show possession.

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Bihar Board Class 6 Social Science Solutions Geography Hamari Duniya Bhag 1 Chapter 2 पृथ्वी एवं उसकी गतियाँ Text Book Questions and Answers, Notes.

BSEB Bihar Board Class 6 Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 2 पृथ्वी एवं उसकी गतियाँ

Bihar Board Class 6 Social Science पृथ्वी एवं उसकी गतियाँ Text Book Questions and Answers

अभ्यास

उचित विकल्पों पर सही (✓) का निशान लगाइए

Bihar Board Class 6 Geography Solution प्रश्न 1.
समदिवा रात्रि होते हैं
(क) 22 जून-21 सितम्बर
(ख) 25 दिसम्बर
(ग) 21 मार्च 23 सितम्बर
(घ) ध्रुवों पर
उत्तर-
(ग) 21 मार्च 23 सितम्बर

Bihar Board Class 6 Social Science Solution प्रश्न 2.
सबसे बड़ा दिन होता है
(क) 21 जून
(ख) 22 जून
(ग) 25 दिसम्बर
(घ) 22 दिसम्बर
उत्तर-
(ग) 25 दिसम्बर

Bihar Board Class 6 Social Science Solution In Hindi प्रश्न 3.
पृथ्वी अपने अक्ष पर झुकी है
(क) 32129
(ख) 331°
(ग) 23°
(घ) 239
उत्तर-
(घ) 239

Bihar Board Class 6 History Solution प्रश्न 4.
शीतोष्ण कटिबंध में
(क) बहुत गर्मी पड़ती है
(ख) कम गर्मी पड़ती है
(ग) बहुत बरसात होती है
(घ) अधिक ठंड एवं कम गर्मी पडती है
उत्तर-
(घ) अधिक ठंड एवं कम गर्मी पडती है

Bihar Board Class 6 History Book प्रश्न 5.
जहाँ सालों भर गर्मी पड़ती है। वह क्षेत्र कहलाता है
(क) शीतोष्ण कटिबंध
(ख) उष्णकटिबंध
(ग) ध्रुव
(घ) विषुवत रेखा पर
उत्तर-
(ख) उष्णकटिबंध

Bihar Board Solution Class 6 Social Science प्रश्न 6.
पृथ्वी आकार में चन्द्रमा से
(क) छोटी है
(ख) बड़ी है
(ग) समान है
उत्तर-
(ख) बड़ी है

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Bihar Board प्रश्न 7.
चांद पर पहुँचने वाले पहले व्यक्ति थे
(क) राकेश शर्मा
(ख) यूरी गागरिन
(ग) तेन सिंह
(घ) नील आर्मस्ट्रांग
उत्तर-
(क) राकेश शर्मा

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Bihar Board प्रश्न 2.
खाली जगहों को भरें

1. उत्तरी ध्रुव से दक्षिणी ध्रुव को मिलाने वाली काल्पनिक रेखा ………. कहलाती है।
2. पृथ्वी ……… गति के कारण दिन-रात होते हैं।
3. विषुवतीय प्रदेशों में सूर्य की किरणें सालो भर ……… पड़ती हैं।
4. पृथ्वी ………. से …….. की ओर घूमती है।

उत्तर-

1. अक्ष
2. घूर्णन गति या दैनिक गति
3. सीधी
4. पश्चिम, पूरब

पृथ्वी के किस भाग में सबसे कम गर्मी पड़ती है और क्यों Bihar Board प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें

Geography Class 6 Chapter 2 Bihar Board प्रश्न (i)
ध्रुवों पर छह महीने लगातार दिन और रात क्यों होते हैं ?
उत्तर-
उत्तरी ध्रुव पर सूर्य का प्रकाश लगातार 6 महीने पड़ता है तो यहाँ
छ: महीने लगातार दिन होते हैं और ठीक उसी समय दक्षिणी ध्रुव में अंधेरा होने के कारण ही दक्षिणी ध्रुव में लगातार 6 महीने रात होती हैं।

Bihar Board Class 6 Sst Book Solution प्रश्न (ii)
दैनिक गति और वार्षिक गति में क्या अंतर है?
उत्तर-
दैनिक गति – जिस हिस्से पर सूर्य का प्रकाश नहीं पड़ता है वह हिस्सा हमें दिखाई देता है, वहाँ दिन होता है और जहाँ प्रकाश नहीं पड़ता है, वहाँ दिखाई नहीं पड़ता, वहाँ रात होती है। पृथ्वी को इस तरह का चक्कर पूरी करने में 24 घंटे का समय लगता है, पृथ्वी की इस गति को घूर्णन गति – या दैनिक गति कहते हैं।

इस गति के कारण ही दिन और रात होते हैं। वार्षिक गति-घूर्णन गति के कारण ही पृथ्वी की परिभ्रमण गति भी जुड़ी हुई है इसी कारण ऋतु परिवर्तन । पृथ्वी अपने अक्ष पर घूमती हुई पृथ्वी 365 दिन में धीरे-धीरे खिसकते हुए सूर्य का एक चक्कर पूरा कर लेती है। पृथ्वी की इस वार्षिक गति को ही परिभ्रमण गति कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न (iii)
अक्ष किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर-
पृथ्वी घूमती रहती है। उत्तरी एवं दक्षिणी ध्रुव से मिलने वाली काल्पनिक रेखा अक्ष कहलाती है। पृथ्वी भी अपने अक्ष पर घूम रही है। लेकिन पृथ्वी पर ग्लोब की तरह उत्तरी ध्रुव से दक्षिणी ध्रव को मिलाने वाली कोई रेखा नहीं है। ग्लोब पृथ्वी का नमूना हैं इसलिए ग्लोब अपने अक्ष पर सीधी नहीं खड़ी होकर एक ओर झुकी हुई है क्योंकि पृथ्वी अपने अक्ष पर 231° झुकी हुई है।

प्रश्न (iv)
पृथ्वी किस दिशा में घूमती है?
उत्तर-
पृथ्वी पश्चिम दिशा से परब दिशा की ओर घूमती है।

प्रश्न (v)
पृथ्वी के किस भाग में सबसे कम गर्मी पड़ती है और क्यों?
उत्तर-
पृमी के ‘शीतोष्ण कटिबंध क्षेत्र में’ जैसे-जैसे उत्तर या दक्षिण में बढ़ते हैं । सूर्य की किरणें तिरछी होती जाती हैं और बड़े हिस्से में फैल जाती है जिसके कारण कम गर्मी पड़ती है।

प्रश्न 5.
क्रियाशीलन-चार्ट पेपर पर पृथ्वी का चित्र बनाकर उसमें विभिन्न ताप कटिबंध को अलग-अलग रंगों में दिखाकर कक्षा में प्रदर्शित कीजिए।
उत्तर-
छात्र शिक्षक की सहायता से स्वयं करें।

प्रश्न 6.
नीचे कुछ महादेशों एवं महासागरों के नाम छुपे हुए हैं उनको पहचान कीजिए|

उत्तर-महादेश –

1. एशिया महादेश
2. यूरोप महादेश
3. आस्ट्रेलिया महादेश
4. अफ्रिका महादेश
5. उत्तरी अमेरिका महादेश
6. दक्षिणी अमेरिका महादेश
7. अंटाकोटका अमेरिका महादेश

महासागर –

1. हिन्द महासागर ।
2. प्रशांत महासागर
3. अटलांटिक महासागर
4. आर्कटिक महासागर

Bihar Board Class 6 Social Science पृथ्वी एवं उसकी गतियाँ Notes

पाठ का सारांश

• पृथ्वी को सूर्य के चारों ओर चक्कर लगाने में एक वर्ष या 365 दिन लगते हैं, इसलिए इस गति को वार्षिक गति भी कहते हैं।
• सूर्य के प्रकाश से ही पृथ्वी प्रकाशित होती है।
• पृथ्वी को इस तरह का एक चक्कर पूरा करने में 24 घंटे का समय लगता है।
• पृथ्वी सूर्य के चारों ओर भी चक्कर लगाती है जिसे परिभ्रमण कहते

Bihar Board 12th Philosophy Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 12th Philosophy Objective Answers Chapter 8 वास्तविकता की प्रकृति

प्रश्न 1.
सत्याकर्वबाद के रूप में है
(A) आरम्भवाद
(B) परिणामयाद
(C) विवर्त्तवाद
(D) (B) और (C) दोनों
उत्तर:
(D) (B) और (C) दोनों

प्रश्न 2.
‘पूर्व-स्थापित सामंजस्यवाद’ दिया गया है
(A) देकार्त द्वारा
(B) सीनोजा द्वारा
(C) लाइबनीज द्वारा
(D) हम द्वारा
उत्तर:
(C) लाइबनीज द्वारा

प्रश्न 3.
‘ईश्वर तथा जगत् एक ही तत्व के दो नाम है’ ऐसा विचार किनका है?
(A) देकारी
(B) स्पीनोजा
(C) काण्ट
(D) बेकन
उत्तर:
(A) देकारी

प्रश्न 4.
किसने कहा है, “मनुष्य सभी वस्तुओं का मापदण्ड है”?
(A) अरस्तू
(B) प्लेटो
(C) सोफिस्ट
(D) बेन
उत्तर:
(A) अरस्तू

प्रश्न 5.
निम्न में से कौन एक समानान्तरबाद का समर्थक है?
(A) लाइबनित्स
(B) लॉक
(C) देकार्त
(D) स्पिनोजा
उत्तर:
(D) स्पिनोजा

प्रश्न 6.
ईश्वर के अस्तित्व को स्वीकारने में लीनीज पर किनका प्रभाव था?
(A) प्लेटो का
(B) अरस्तू का
(C) लाइबनिरस का
(D) स्पीनोजा एवं देकार्त का
उत्तर:
(D) स्पीनोजा एवं देकार्त का

प्रश्न 7.
किसने कहा कि ईश्वर, आत्मा और ब्रह्माण्ड का ज्ञान बुठि द्वारा संभव नहीं है?
(A) काण्ट
(B) देकार्त
(C) पीनोजा
(D) बेकन
उत्तर:
(B) देकार्त

प्रश्न 8.
ऐस इस्ट परसीपी के सिद्धांत किसने दिया है?
(A) घूम
(B) बकलं
(C) मूरे
(D) प्लेटो.
उत्तर:
(C) मूरे

प्रश्न 9.
प्रयोजनात्मक, विश्वमीमासीय एवं सत्ता मीमांसीय युक्ति के संबंध है
(A) ईश्वर के अस्तित्व से
(B) आत्मा के अस्तित्व से
(C) गड़ के अस्तित्व से
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(A) ईश्वर के अस्तित्व से

प्रश्न 10.
“सृष्टि रचना किसी उद्देश्य से की गई है” ऐसा कंचन ईश्वर को प्रमाणित करने के लिए किया जाता है
(A) जगत्-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(B) कारणता-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(C) सत्तावादी तर्क में
(D) प्रयोजन-मूलक तर्क में
उत्तर:
(C) सत्तावादी तर्क में

प्रश्न 11.
ईश्वर का अस्तित्व आदि कारण के रूप में सिद्ध होता है
(A) जगत्-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(B) प्रयोजन-मूलक तर्क के ।
(C) कारणता-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क में
उत्तर:
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क में

प्रश्न 12.
किसने स्पट किया कि ईश्वर के अस्तित्व को प्रमाणित करने के लिए सत्तामूलक (ontologiCAl), विश्वमूलक (CosmologiCAl) तथा उद्देश्यमूलक (TClCologiCAl) सभी प्रमाण निष्फल ही समझे जा सकते हैं?
(A) काण्ट
(B) देकार्त
(C) स्पीनोजा
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(B) देकार्त

प्रश्न 13.
“भावना से वास्तविकता सिद्ध नहीं होती।” रसगुल्ले का विचार आने पर रसगुल्ला समाने नहीं चला आता है। ऐसा किस प्रमाण के ‘ विरुद्ध में कहा जाता है?
(A) सत्तामूलक प्रमाण
(B) कारण-कार्य-विषयक प्रमाण
(C) प्रयोजनवादी प्रमाण
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(B) कारण-कार्य-विषयक प्रमाण

प्रश्न 14.
“ईश्वर की सत्यनिष्ठा पर ज्ञान की कसौटी आधारित है।” यह किनका मानना है?
(A) देकार्त
(B) स्पीनोजा
(C) झूम
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(A) देकार्त

प्रश्न 15.
“आत्माश्रय दोष’ पाया जाता है
(A) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त जगत् सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(B) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त सत्तावादी तर्क में
(C) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त प्रयोजनवादी तर्क में
(D) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त कारणतया तर्क में
उत्तर:
(B) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त सत्तावादी तर्क में

प्रश्न 16.
किस तर्क में ईश्वर के अस्तित्व को जगत् के अस्तित्व के आधार पर सिद्ध किया जाता है?
(A) जगत्-सम्बन्धी तर्क
(B) प्रयोजन-मूलक तर्क
(C) कारणता-सम्बन्धी तर्क
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क
उत्तर:
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क

प्रश्न 17.
ईश्वर के अस्तित्व की सिद्धि के लिए देकार्त ने निम्न में से किस एक सिद्धान्त का प्रयोग किया है?
(A) एक पूर्ण सत्ता समग्र विश्व का कारण होनी चाहिए
(B) एक पूर्ण सत्ता एक पूर्ण सत्ता के प्रत्यय का कारण होनी चाहिए
(C) एक पूर्ण सत्ता आश्रित सत्ताओं का कारण होनी चाहिए
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(B) एक पूर्ण सत्ता एक पूर्ण सत्ता के प्रत्यय का कारण होनी चाहिए

प्रश्न 18.
सत्कार्यवाद के रूप में है [2012A]
(A) आरम्भवाद
(B) परिणामवाद
(C) विवर्त्तवाद
(D) (B) और (C) दोनों
उत्तर:
(D) (B) और (C) दोनों

प्रश्न 19.
‘पूर्व-स्थापित सामंजव्यवाद’ दिया गया है- [2010A]
(A) देकार्त द्वारा
(B) स्पीनोजा द्वारा
(C) लाइबनीज द्वारा
(D) धूम द्वारा
उत्तर:
(C) लाइबनीज द्वारा

प्रश्न 20.
स्पीनोजा ने स्वीकारा है [2010A, 2016A]
(A) अंत:क्रियावाद
(B) समानान्तरवाद
(C) पूर्वस्थापित सामंजस्यवाद
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(B) समानान्तरवाद

प्रश्न 21.
‘ईश्वर तथा जगत एक ही तत्व के दो नाम हैं’ ऐसा विचार किनका
(A) देकार्त
(D) प्लेटो
(B) स्पीनोजा
(C) काण्ट
उत्तर:
(A) देकार्त

प्रश्न 22.
निम्न में से कौन एक समानान्तरवाद का समर्थक है? [2014A]
(A) लाइबनित्स
(B) लॉक
(C) देकार्त
(D) स्पिनोजा
उत्तर:
(D) स्पिनोजा

प्रश्न 23.
ईश्वर के अस्तित्व को स्वीकारने में लीनीज पर किनका प्रभाव था?
(A) प्लेटो का
(B) अरस्तु का
(C) लाइबनित्स का
(D) स्पीनोजा एवं देकार्त का
उत्तर:
(D) स्पीनोजा एवं देकार्त का

प्रश्न 24.
किसने कहा कि इंश्वर, आत्मा और ब्रह्माण्ड का ज्ञान बुद्धि द्वारा संभव नहीं है?
(A) काण्ट
(B) देकार्ड
(C) पीनोजा
(D) बेकन
उत्तर:
(B) देकार्ड

प्रश्न 25.
एसे इस्ट परसीपी के सिद्धांत किसने दिया है? [2012A, 2013A]
(A) इम
(B) बर्कले
(C) बेकन
(D) प्लेटो
उत्तर:
(C) बेकन

प्रश्न 26.
प्रयोजनात्मक, विश्वमीमांसीय एवं सत्ता मीमांसीय युक्ति के संबंध [2012A, 2013A]
(A) ईश्वर के अस्तित्व से
(B) आत्मा के अस्तित्व से
(C) जड़ के अस्तित्व से
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(A) ईश्वर के अस्तित्व से

प्रश्न 27.
“सृष्टि रचना किसी उद्देश्य से की गई है” ऐसा कथन ईश्वर को प्रमाणित करने के लिए किया जाता है
(A) जगत्-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(B) कारणता-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(C) सत्तावादी तर्क में
(D) प्रयोजक-मूलक तर्क में
उत्तर:
(C) सत्तावादी तर्क में

प्रश्न 28.
ईश्वर का अस्तित्त्व आदि कारण के रूप में सिद्ध होता है
(A) जगत-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(B) प्रयोजन-मूलक तर्क में
(C) कारपाता-सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क में
उत्तर:
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क में

प्रश्न 29.
किसने स्पष्ट किया कि ईश्वर के अस्तित्व को प्रमाणित करने के लिए सत्तामूलक, विश्वमूलक तथा उद्देश्यमूलक सभी प्रमाण निष्काल ही समझे जा सकते हैं?
(A) काट
(B) देकार्त
(C) स्पीनोजा
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(B) देकार्त

प्रश्न 30.
“भावना से वास्तविकता सिद्ध नहीं होती।” रसगुल्ले का विचार अपने पर रसगुल्ला सामने नहीं चला आता है। ऐसा किस प्रमाण के विरुद्ध में कहा जाता है?
(A) सत्तामूलक प्रमाण
(B) कारण-कार्य-विषयक प्रमाण
(C) प्रयोजनवादी प्रमाण
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(B) कारण-कार्य-विषयक प्रमाण

प्रश्न 31.
“ईश्वर की सत्यनिष्ठा पर जान की कसौटी आधारित है। यह किनका मानना है?
(A) देकार्त
(B) स्पोनोजा
(C) राम
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(A) देकार्त

प्रश्न 32.
‘आत्माश्रय दोष’ पाया जाता है
(A) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त जगत् सम्बन्धी तर्क में
(B) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त सत्तावादी तर्क में
(C) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त प्रयोजनवादी तर्क में
(D) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त कारणतया के तर्क में
उत्तर:
(B) ईश्वर के प्रमाण के निमित्त सत्तावादी तर्क में

प्रश्न 33.
किस तर्क में ईश्वर के अस्तित्व को जगत् के अस्तित्व के आधार पर सिद्ध किया जाता है?
(A) जगत्-सम्बन्धी तर्क
(B) प्रयोजन-मूलक तर्क
(C) कारणता-सम्बन्धी तर्क
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क
उत्तर:
(D) सत्तावादी तर्क

प्रश्न 34.
ईश्वर के अस्तित्व की सिद्धि के लिए देकार्त ने निम्न में से किस एक सिद्धान्त का प्रयोग किया है? [2014]
(A) एक पूर्ण सत्ता समग्र विश्व का कारण होनी चाहिए ।
(B) एक पूर्ण सत्ता एक पूर्ण सत्ता के प्रत्यय का कारण होनी चाहिए
(C) एक पूर्ण सत्ता आश्रित सत्ताओं का कारण होनी चाहिए
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(B) एक पूर्ण सत्ता एक पूर्ण सत्ता के प्रत्यय का कारण होनी चाहिए

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Objective Answers Chapter 1 Accounting for Non-profit Organization

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Npo Notes Bihar Board Question 1.
Income and Expenditure Account is:
(A) Personal Account
(B) Real Account
(C) Nominal Account
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Nominal Account

Not For Profit Organisation Class 12 Solutions Bihar Board Question 2.
Life Membership Fees received by a club is shown in :
(A) Income and Expenditure A/c
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Receipts and Payments A/c
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Balance Sheet

Accounting For Non Profit Organisation Questions And Answers Bihar Board Question 3.
Receipts and Payments Account is a :
(A) Personal Account
(B) Real Account
(C) Nominal Account
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Real Account

Non Profit Organisation Accounting 12th Bihar Board Question 4.
Income and Expenditure Account is prepared :
(A) By Business Organisation
(B) By Industrial Organisation
(C) By Not-for-Profit Organisation
(D) By All Organisations
Answer:
(C) By Not-for-Profit Organisation

Accounting For Not For Profit Organisation Class 12 Solutions Bihar Board Question 5.
Payment of honorarium to secretary is treated as :
(A) Capital expenditure
(B) Revenue expenditure
(C) An Income
(D/) None of these
Answer:
(B) Revenue expenditure

Question 6.
Outstanding subscription is a:
(A) Income
(B) Asset
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) (A) and (B) both

Question 7.
Legacies should be treated as :
(A) A Liability
(B) A Revenue Receipt
(C) An Income
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) A Liability

Question 8.
The excess of assets over liabilities in non-trading concerns is termed as:
(A) Capital Fund
(B) Capital
(C) Profit
(D) Net Profit
Answer:
(A) Capital Fund

Question 9.
For a non-trading concern, honorarium paid is : ,
(A) An Income
(B) An Asset
(C) An Expense
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) An Expense

Question 10
ntrance fees, unless otherwise stated, is treated as:
(A) A Capital Receipt
(B) A Revenue Income
(C) A Liability
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) A Revenue Income

Question 11.
Specific donation is:
(A) Capital Receipt
(B) Revenue Receipt
(C) Asset
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Capital Receipt

Question 12.
Income and Expenditure Account records transactions of:
(A) Capital nature only
(B) Revenue nature only
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Revenue nature only

Question 13.
Life membership fee received by a club is:
(A) Revenue Receipt
(B) Capital Receipt
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Capital Receipt

Question 14.
All receipts of capital nature are shown in :
(A) Income and Expenditure A/c
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) P. & L. A/c
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Balance Sheet

Question 15.
All items of revenue in nature are shown in:
(A) Income and Expenditure A/c
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Income and Expenditure A/c

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a not-for-profit organisation ?
(A) College
(B) Sports Club
(C) Maruti Udyog
(D) Hospital
Answer:
(C) Maruti Udyog

Question 17.
Subscriptions received in advance by a club are shown on… .of the Balance Sheet
(A) Assets Side
(B) Liabilities Side
(C) Debit Side
(D) Credit Side
Answer:
(B) Liabilities Side

Question 18.
Which of the following is not an income ?
(A) Subscription
(B) Donation
(C) Sale of Ticket
(D) Endowment Fund
Answer:
(D) Endowment Fund

Question 19.
Most transaction in non-trading concerns are:
(A) Cash
(B) Credit
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Cash

Question 20.
The main object of non-profit organisation is:
(A) To earn Profit
(B) To Serve the Society
(C) To Prepare Profit & Loss A/c
(D) All the above
Answer:
(B) To Serve the Society

Question 21.
Subscription received by an organisation is:
(A) Capital Receipt
(B) Revenue Receipt
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Revenue Receipt

Question 22.
Receipts and Payments A/c is a summary of:
(A) All Capital Receipts and Payments
(B) All Revenue Receipts and Payments
(C) All Revenue and Capital Receipts and Payments
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) All Revenue and Capital Receipts and Payments

Question 23.
Subscription received by a schoblfbr organising annual V function is treated as:
(A) Capital Receipt
(B) Revenue Receipt
(C) Asset
(D) Earned Income
Answer:
(C) Asset

Question 24.
Out of the following items, which one is shown in the Receipts and Payments Account?
(A) Outstanding Salary
(B) Depreciation
(C) Life Membership Fees
(D) Accrued Subscription
Answer:
(B) Depreciation

Question 25.
In case specific fund is maintained, the expenses exceeding the amount of the fluids, should be recorded on:
(A) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
(B) Debit side the Income and Expenditure Account
(C) Credit side of the Income and Expenditure Account
(D) Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Answer:
(B) Debit side the Income and Expenditure Account

Question 26.
All receipts from sale of consumable items are treated as:
(A) Capital Receipts
(B) Revenue Receipts
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Revenue Receipts

Question 27.
Capital fUnd is calculated:
(A) Income-Expenditure
(B) Assets Liabilities
(C) Capital + Liabilities
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Assets Liabilities

Question 28.
Subscription redeved in advance during the current year is:
(A) An income
(B) An Asset
(C) A liability
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) A liability

Question 29.
Balance of Income and Expenditure Account shows:
(A) Cash in hand
(B) Capital Fund
(C) Net Profit
(D) Excess of Income over Expenditure or Vice Versa
Answer:
(D) Excess of Income over Expenditure or Vice Versa

Question 30.
Property received as a result of the will of the deceased person is called:
(A) Legacy
(B) Honorarium
(C) Donation
(D) Subscription
Answer:
(A) Legacy

Question 31.
Receipts and Payments Account usually indicates:
(A) Surplus
(B) Capital Fund
(C) Debit Balance
(D) Credit Balance
Answer:
(C) Debit Balance

Question 32.
Income and Expenditure Account generally indicates:
(A) Surplus/Deficit
(B) Cash Balance
(C) Capital Fund
(D) Net Profit/Loss
Answer:
(A) Surplus/Deficit

Question 33.
Donation received for a special purpose:
(A) Should be credited to Income and Expenditure A/c
(B) Should be credited to a separate account and shown in the Balance Sheet
(C) Should be shown on the Assets side of the Balance Sheet
(D) None of these ,
Answer:
(B) Should be credited to a separate account and shown in the Balance Sheet

Question 34.
In not-for-profit organisation, excess of expenditure over income is called :
(A) Loss
(B) Profit
(C) Deficit
(D) Surplus
Answer:
(C) Deficit

Question 35.
Which of the following is a non-profitable organisation ?
(A) Jharkhand Academic Council
(B) Tata Steel
(C) Air India
(D) Reliance Co. Ltd.
Answer:
(A) Jharkhand Academic Council

Question 36.
Income and Expenditure Account is preparedly :
(A) Trending Organisation
(B) Non-trading Organisation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Non-trading Organisation

Question 37.
Sale of old newspapers is:
(A) Capital Receipt
(B) Revenue Receipt
(C) Asset
(D) Profit
Answer:
(B) Revenue Receipt

Question 38.
Income and expenses related to the prize fund is shown in:
(A) Income and Expenditure Account
(B) Assets side of the Balance Sheet
(C) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
(D) Cash Account
Answer:
(A) Income and Expenditure Account

Question 39.
Which of the following is not a not-for-profit organisation:
(A) School
(B) Hospital
(C) Club
(D) Partnership Firm
Answer:
(D) Partnership Firm

Question 40.
Subscription received during the year 50,000 Rs. Subscriptions outstanding at the end of the year 8,000 Rs. Subscription outstanding at the beginning of the year 6,000 Rs. Net Income from subscription will be :
(A) 48,000 Rs.
(B) 64,000 Rs.
(C) 52,000 Rs.
(D) 36,000 Rs.
Answer:
(C) 52,000 Rs.

Question 41.
Subscription received during the year ₹ 1,80,000 Subscriptions outstanding at the end of the year ₹ 20,000 Subscriptions received in advance at the end of the year ₹ 10,000. The amount of subscription to be credited to Income and Expenditure Account will be:
(A) ₹ 2,10,000
(B) ₹ 1,90,000
(C) ₹ 1,70,000
(D) ₹ 2,00,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 1,90,000

Question 42.
In case specific fund is maintained, the expenses exceeding the amount of the funds, should be recorded on:
(A) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
(B) Debit side of the Income and Expenditure Account
(C) Credit side of the Income and Expenditure Account
(D) Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Answer:
(B) Debit side of the Income and Expenditure Account