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Bihar Board 12th Physics Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 2 in English Medium

Objective Type Questions

There are 1 to 35 objective type questions with 4 options. Choose the correct option which is to be answered on OMR Sheet. (35 x 1 = 35)

Question 1.
64 identical small drops combine to form a big drop. Calculate the capacity of big drop if capacity of each small drop is 5mF.
(a) 164 μF (b) 20 μF (c) 4 μF (d) 2n μF
Answer:
(b) 20 μF

Question 2.
The potential of A is 10 volt. The current flowing in the earth will be

(a) 10 ampere (b) 30 ampere (c) – 10 ampere (d) 0 ampere
Answer:
(a) 10 ampere

Question 3.
The force experienced by charged particle in mag netic field is
(a) F = qVB
(b) F = qVB sinθ
\((c) F=\frac{q}{\sqrt{B}}
(d) \quad F=\frac{V B \sin \theta}{q}\)
Answer:
(b) F = qVB sinθ

Question 4.
Which is not the unit of electric power?
(a) Watt (b) Ampere x Volt (c) Ampere²/ohm (d) Ampere ²/ohm
Answer:
(c) Ampere²/ohm

Question 5.
I Stat Coulomb is equal to Coulombs
(a) 3 x 10⁹
(b) 3 x 10^-9
(c)  \(\frac{1}{5} \times 10^{9}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3} \times 10^{-9}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{3} \times 10^{-9}\)

Question 6.
Two cell having emf E₁, internal resistance r is joined in parallel with resistance R. The power gives to resistance maximum if
(a) R = r/2
(b) R = r
(c) R = 2r
(d) R = 0
Answer:
(a) R = r/2

Question 7.
The resistance of ammeter is 0.05 W is joined with 1.5 V cell. If the current passes from circuit is 2A then internal resistance of cell is
(a) 1.0 Ω (b) 0.9 Ω (c) 0.8 Ω (d) 0.7 Ω
Answer:
(d) 0.7 Ω

Question 8.
Which substance is useful to make strong electro-magnet?
(a) air (b) soft iron (c) steal (d) alloy of copper & nickel
Answer:
(b) soft iron

Question 9.
Hysteresis shows
(a) paramagnetic substance (b) diamagnetic substance (c) ferromagnetic susbtance (d) None of these
Answer:
(b) diamagnetic substance

Question 10.
A°C. source is joined with L.C.R. circuit of angular frequency w. The peak value of current is

Answer:
(c)

Question 11.
The unit of impedance is
(a) mho (b) Ohm (c) Faraday (d) Ampere
Answer:
(b) Ohm

Question 12.
Self inductance of coil measures
(a) electrical inertia (b) electrical friction (c) induced emf (d) induced current
Answer:
(a) electrical inertia

Question 13.
A charged particle moves in uniform magnetic field. If the velocity of particle makes acute angle with magnetic field the path of particle is
(a) Rectilinear (b) Circular (c) Spiral (d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Spiral

Question 14.
The relation b/w electric field and magnetic field in the electromagnetic wave

Answer:
(a)

Question 15.
Maximum intensity in Young’s double slit experiment is Io. If one of will be the slit is closed then intensity

Answer:
(b)

Question 16.
Dynamo works on the principle
(a) on the Heating effect of current
(b) on electromagnetic induction
(c) on magnetic induction
(d) on electric induction
Answer:
(b) on electromagnetic induction

Question 17.
In a step up Transformer the number of coils in primary coils is N₁ and N₂ is secondary. Then
(a) N₁ = N₂ (b) N₁ < N₂ (c) N₁ > N₂ (d) None of these
Answer:
(b) N₁ < N₂

Question 18.
After increasing the angle of biprism, the fringe width
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains constant (d) Indefinite
Answer:
(b) Decreases

Question 19.
If the wave length of light is A, and intensity of diffractive length is I then

Answer:
(c)

Question 20.
The phase difference between two waves for constructive interference is
(a) 0 (b) π (c) π/2 (d) 3π/4
Answer:
(b) π

Question 21.
Two convex lens are kept in contact. The equivalent lens is
(a) convex (b) concave (c) piano concave (d) 1 cylindrical
Answer:
(a) convex

Question 22.
The length of tube of simple microscope increases, then its magnifying power
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Becomes zero (d) Remains constant
Answer:
(a) Increases

Question 23.
The energy of photon is
\((a) hv
(b) \frac{h v}{c}
(c) \mathrm{h} / \mathrm{v}
(d) \frac{v}{h}\)
Answer:
(b)

Question 24.
The sun obtaines radiant energy with
(a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear disintegration (c) Chemical reaction in nuclei (d) Nuclear fusion
Answer:
(d) Nuclear fusion

Question 25.
The energy of electron is proportive in z atomic number
(a) z (b) z² (c) z^-1 (d) z^-2
Answer:
(b) z²

Question 26.
The force between two proton inside the nucleus is
(a) only electrical (b) only nuclear (c) both (d) None of these
Answer:
(c) both

Question 27.
The process in which monochromatic, parallel and highly coherent light are obtained, is called
(a) LASER (b) MASER (c) RADAR (d) Antenna
Answer:
(a) LASER

Question 28.
The Dimension of Rydberg is constant
(a) [M° L^-1 T°] (b) [M°L°T^-1] (c) [M° LF^-1] (d) [ML² T^-1]
Answer:

Question 29.
Solar cell is used in
(a) Artificial satellite (b) On the moon (c) Mars (d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Artificial satellite

Question 30.
A transistor behaves as a switch
(a) In Active region (b) cut off state (c) s (d) b and c both
Answer:
(d) b and c both

Question 31.
A uniform magnetic field is obtained in
(a) A bar magnet (b) A horse-shoe magnet (c) A circular coil carrying current (d) A cylindrical coil carrying a current.
Answer:
(b) A horse-shoe magnet

Question 32.
Boolean expression of AND gate is
(a) \(\overline{A \cdot B}=y\) (b) A + B = y (c) A – B = y (d) A + B = y
Answer:
(c)

Question 33.
In long-distance radio-broadcast short wave bands are used because
(a) Ionosphere reflects these (b) Ionosphere transmits these (c) Ionosphere absorbs these (d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ionosphere reflects these

Question 34.
The process which works as modulator and de-modulator is called
(a) Laser (b) RADAR (c) Modem (d) Fax
Answer:
(c) Modem

Question 35.
The message superposed on carrier wave is called
(a) Transmission (b) Modulation (c) Demoduletion (d) Transducer
Answer:
(b) Modulation

Non-Objective Type Questions
Short Answer Type Questions

Q.No. 1 to 18 are short answers type question. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer any ten (10) question.

Question 1.
What is surface density of charge? Write its S.I. unit.
Answer:
The amount of electric charge per unit surface area is called surface density of charge.
It is denoted by σ.
\(\sigma=\frac{Q}{A}\)
The S.I. Unit of surface density of charge is Coulomb/m².

Question 2.
A electric dipole is placed in electric field 4 x 10⁴ volt/m making an angle 30°. The torque 1.6 x 10^-25 Nm volt m the dipole. Calculate electric dipole moment.
Answer:

Question 3.
Write the uses of Cyclotrons.
Answer:
There are many uses of cyclotrons :

• Cyclotrons are used to treat cancer.
• Ion Beams from cyclotrons can be used, are in proton therapy, to penetrate the body and kill tumors by radiation damage.
• Cyclotrons are used to achieve required velocity of a bombarding particle in nuclear reaction.

Question 4.
What is Shunt?
Answer:
A Shunt is a low resistance wire which allows electric current to pass around another point in the circuit by creating a low resistance path.

It is added in parallel with Galvanometer.

Question 5.
What is ampere’s circuited law with expression?
Answer:
It states that the line integral of magnetic field
\(\overrightarrow{(B)}\) around any closed path are, circuit is equal to p0 times of total current (I) threading the closed circuit.

where, μ₀ = permeability of free space.

Question 6.
Why core of transformer is laminated ?
Answer:
The wire of transformer is laminated so as to reduce loss of energy due to eddy currents. The magnitude and eddy currents set up is considerably minimised when the core is laminated.

Question 7.
What are the properties of electro-magnetic wave ?
Answer:

• These wave does not need material medium for propagation.
• These wave obeys principle of superposition of charge.
• These wave moves in vacuum or in air with velocity of light.
  \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}} \geq C=3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}\)
• The ratio of amplitude of electric field and magnetic field remains constant and it is equal to velocity of light.
  \(\frac{E}{B}=C\)

Question 8.
A uniform magnetic field gets modified as shown in the figure, when two specimens X and Y are placed in it.

(i) Identify the two specimensx andy.
(ii) State the reason for modification of the field lines in x andy.
Answer:

1. X is diamagenetic and Y is ferromagnetic.
2. Diamagnetic materials have permeabilities less than I (one) and have negative susceptibility. Their atoms and molecules do not have permanent dipole moment. The field lines get expelled in them. Ferromagnetic materials have permeability more than one and susceptibility positive. Their atoms and molecules have permanent dipole moment. So the field lines get concentrated in them.

Question 9.
What is the importance of radial magnetic field in moving coil Galvanometer ?
Answer:
When the magnetic field is made radial by using a field magnet with concave poles, the plane of coil always remains parallel to the direction of magnetic field. Due to this, the galvanometer scale becomes linear.

Question 10.
Why does the colour of the oil film on the surface of water continuously changes ?
Answer:
The location of bright and dark fringes produced by thin oil films depends upon the thickness of the film. The thickness of oil film on the surface of water continuously varies and as a result, the position of coloured fringes also varies. This appears as a variation in the colour of oil films.

Question 11.
Two coherent sources whose intensity ratio is 25 : 4 produces interference fringes. Calculate the ratio of intensity of maxima and minima in the fringe system.
Answer:

Question 13.
Write logic symbol and truth table of NOR
Answer:
Symbol.

Question 14.
Write two characteristics of LASER rays.
Answer:

• It is highly directional with parallel beam.
• It is monochromatic and coherent.

Question 15.
What do you mean by analog and digital signal.
Answer:
Analog signal :
It is an electrical wave form continuously changing in magnitude with time.

Digital signalI :
is a discontinuous and decrease signal having only binary variation between 1 and 0 with time.

Question 16.
Show that de-Broglie wave length of electron of energy E is given by relation
\(\lambda=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m E}}\)
(b) Why is the belt of Vandergrift Generator made of insulating material ?
Answer:
Consider that an electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated through a potential difference V. If E is the energy, then

(b) Belt of a Vandegrift generator is made of insulating material because the charge it receives remain fixed on its surface and carries upto the dome.

Question 17.
What are the differences between polarised and unpolarised light.
Answer:
Polarised light:

• The light waves that have vibration occuring within them in a single plane.
• Only takes place with the help of sunlight.

Unpolorised light:

• The light waves that have vibration occuring within them of random angles without any plane.
• Reflection is scattering or travel through a material that can cause polarisation.

Question 18.
Define half life, mention the relation between half life and decay constant.
Answer:
Half Life :
The half life of a radioa ctive is the time in which the no. of radio active atoms of the substance is reduced to half of its original value.

Relation :
We know that λ + N = N₀e^-λ

Long Answer Type Questions

Q.No. 19 to 24 are long answers type question. Each question of this category carries 5 marks. Answer any three (3) question. (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 19.
What is capacitor? Find the expression for equivalent capacity when three capacitor are joined in series.
Answer:
Capacitor :
The artificial arrangement of conductor in which capacity of conductor increases by decreasing potential.

Expression for equivalent capacity

Let A₁ B₁, A₂ B₂ and A₃ B₃ are three capacitor grouped in series whose capacity are C₁, C₂ and C₃ respectively.

In the series grouping charge is same on all capacitor but potential is different. Its V₁, V₂ and V₃ are potentials then

Thus in series grouping, reciprocal of equivalent capacity is equal to algebraic sum of reciprocals of individual capacity.

Question 20.
Explain how the average velocity of free electrons in the metal at constant temperature, in an electric field remains constant even though the electrons are being constantly accelerated by this electric field.
Answer:
Consider a metallic conductor XY of length / and cross-sectional area A. A potential difference V is applied across the conductor XT. Due to this potential difference in electric field \(\vec{E}\) is produced in the conductor. The magnitude of electric field strength \(E=\vec{l}\) and its direction is from Y to X. This electric field exerts a force on free electrons; due to which electrons are accelerated.

The electric force on electron \(\vec{F}=-e \vec{E}\) (where e = + 1.5 x 10^-9 coulomb).

If m is the mass of electron, then its acceleration
\(\vec{a}=\frac{\vec{F}}{m}=-\frac{e \vec{E}}{m}\) ……………….. (i)

This acceleration remains constant only for a very short duration, since there are random forces which deflect the electron in random manner. These deflections may arise due to

• ions of metallic crystal vibrate simple narratically around their mean positions. Different ions vibrate in different directions and may be displaced by different amounts.
• direct collisions of electrons with atoms of metallic crystal lattice.
• In any way after a short duration it called relaxation time the motion of electrons become random.

Thus, we can imagine that the electrons are accelerated only for a short duration. As average velocity of random motion is zero, if we consider the average motion of an electron. Then its initial velocity is zero, so the velocity of electron after time τ (i.e., drift velocity \(\vec{y}\) (d) is given by the relation.

At given temperature, the relaxation time τ remains constant, so drift velocity remains constant.

Question 21.
What do you mean by mutual inductance of two nearby coils ? Find an expression for Mutual Inductance of two co-exial solenoid.
Answer:
When current flowing in one of two nearby coil is changed, the magnetic flux linked with the other coil changes; due to which an emf is induced in it (other coil). This phenemenon of electromagnetic induction is called the mutual induction. The coil, in which current is changed is called the primary coil and the coil in which emf is induced is called the secondary coil.

The S.I. unit of mutual inductnace is Henry.

Mutual Inductance :
Suppose there are two coils C₁ and C₂. The current l₁ is flowing in primary coil C₁ due to which an effective magnetic flux Φ₂ is linked with secondary coil C₂. By experiments
\(\Phi_{2} \propto I_{1} \text { or } \Phi_{2}=M l_{1}\) ……………….(i)

where M is a constant, and is called the coefficient of mutual induction or mutual inductance.

From (i)
\(\begin{aligned}
&M=\frac{\phi_{2}}{I_{1}}\\
&\text { If } I_{1}=\text { ampere, } M=\phi_{2}
\end{aligned}\)

i.e., the mutual inductance between two coils is numerically equal to the effective flux linked with secondary coil when current flowing in primary coil is ampere.

Mutual Inductance of Two Co-axial Solenoids :
Consider two long co-axial solenoid each of length l with number of turns Nx and N2 wound one over the other. Number of turns per unit length in order (primary) solenoid,

\(n=\frac{N_{1}}{l}\). If l₁, is the current flowing in primary solenoid, the magnetic field produced with this solenoid.
\(B_{1}=\frac{\mu_{0} N_{1} l_{1}}{l}\) …………………… (ii)

The flux linked with each turn of inner solenoid coil is Φ₂ = B₁ A₂. where A₂ is the cross-sectional area of inner solenoid. The total flux linkage with inner coil of N₂-turns.

By definition Mutual Inductance,

If n₁ is number of turns per unit length of outer solenoid and r₂ is radius of inner solenoid, then M = μ₀n N₂πr_2^2.

Question 22.
Derive expression for self inductance of a long air-cored solenoid of length l, cross-sectional area A and having number of turns N.
Answer:
Self Inductance of a long air-cored solenoid :
Consider a long air solenoid having’ri number of turns per unit length. If current in solenoid is /, then magnetic field within the solenoid,

B = μ₀nl ………………(i)

where μ₀ = 4π x 10^-7 Henry/metre is the permeability of free space.

If A is cross-sectional area of solenoid then effective flux linked with solenoid or length T : Φ = NBA where N = ill is the number of turns in length l of solenoid.

Remark :
If solenoid contains a core of ferromagnetic substance of relative permeability μ₀ then self inducatance,
\(L=\frac{\mu_{r} \mu_{0} N^{2} A}{l}\)

Question 23.
Define Alternating Current. Establish the relation between mis value of virtual value and peak value of alternating current.
Answer:
Alternating current (A.C.)-The current in the coil flows in one direction and for the other half of the period. The current flows in the reverse direction. Such a current is called the alternating current, or A.C. It is shown in following graph.
It is given by l = l₀ (ωt + Φ)
where l₀ = current amplitude
t = time period
\(\omega=\frac{2 \pi}{T}\)

• Peak value-/0 is called peak value of Alternating current.
• Root mean square value of AC (RMS)-RMS value is also called virtual value of effective value of AC is that steady current which would produce some heat in given resistance in given time as is done by the alternating current when passed through the same resistance for the same time.

Let the Alternating current, T = l₀ sin ωt
Let dθ be the heat produced by this current in resistance R is an infinitesimally small dt.

Then dθ= I² Rclt

The total quantity of heat produced over one complete cycle of alternating current is given by

The virtual value of alternating current is 0.707 times the peak value of alternating current.

Question 24.
Verify the law of reflection on the basis of Hygienic wave theory of light.
Verification of law of reflection on the basis of wave theory.
Answer:
Let XY be reflecting surface and PA be a plane wave front just incident on the surface. The normals LA and MP to the wave point represents incident rays. If AN is normal to the reflecting surface at a then ∠NAL = i.

The plane wave point reaches at point A and P’ Later in time but in this order. So that it will reach point P in the lost. When the disturbance from point P just reachs point P1 on the reflecting surface, the secondary wavelets from point A on one reflecting surface will grow into sphere of radius AA’ such that AA’ = PP.

Consider any point Q on the incident wave front, Suppose that when disturbance from point P on incident wave front reaches P\ the disturbance from point Q reaches Q’ via point K on the reflecting surface. Since, P’A’ represents the reflected wave front, the time taken by light to travel from any point on incident wave front to the corresponding point. If C is the velocity of light, then time taken by light to go from point Q to Q’ is given by

For rays different points on the incident wave front, the value Q AK are different. The rays from different points on incident wave point will take some time to reach the corresponding points on the reflected wave points. If t given by eq”, (ii) is independent of AK. It follows that

AK (sin i – sin r) should be zero
sin i = sin r = 0
sin i = sin r
i = r
The angle of incidence = Angle of reflection.

Bihar Board 12th Physics Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 4 in English Medium

Instructions for the candidates :

1. Candidates are required to give answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the Right-hand margin indicates full marks.
3. While answering the questions, candidates should adhere to the words limit as far as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections : Section -A and Section-B
6. In Section A there are 35 Objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with Blue/Black ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/ Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise, your result will be treated as invalid.
7. In section-B, there are 18 Short answer type questions (each carrying 2 marks), out of which only 10 (ten) questions are to be answered Apart from this there are 06 Long Answer type questions each carrying 5 marks, out of which 3 questions are to be answered.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

There are 1 to 35 objective type questions with 4 options. Choose the correct option which is to be answered on OMR Sheet. (35 x 1 = 35)

Question 1.
Coulomb force is
(a) Central force
(b) Electric force
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
The property of circuit by which electrical energy changes into heat energy is called
(a) Resistance
(b) Current
(c) Voltage
(d) Electromotive force
Answer:
(a) Resistance

Question 3.
If P, Q, R and S are sides of Wheatstone Bridge then in a balanced state
(a) P + Q = R + S
\(\text { (b) } \frac{P}{Q}=\frac{R}{S}\)
\(\text { (c) } \mathrm{QP}=\frac{\mathrm{S}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
\(\text { (b) } \frac{P}{Q}=\frac{R}{S}\)

Question 4.
When temperature of metal increases, its resistance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) increases

Question 5.
The resistance of ideal voltmeter is
(a) infinity
(b) zero
(c) 50000 Ω
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) infinity

Question 6.
Two particles A and B having equal charge after being acceserated through the same potential difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular path of radius Rj and R2. The ratio of mass A to that of B is

Answer:
(c)

Question 7.
Ampere is unit of
(a) Power
(b) Current
(c) Energy
(d) Potential
Answer:
(b) Current

Question 8.
The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is
(a) Tesla
(b) Henry
(c) Weber
(d) Joule-sec
Answer:
(c) Weber

Question 9.
The working principle of Dynamo is based on
(a) Heating effect of current
(b) Electromagnetic induction
(c) On induced magnetism
(d) On induced current
Answer:
(b) Electromagnetic induction

Question 10.
The hot wire Ammeter measure value of Alternating current
(a) Peak value
(b) Average value
(c) rms value
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Average value

Question 11.
Which substance is suitable to made the core of transformer ?
(a) soft iron
(b) copper
(c) stainless steel
(d) Alnico
Answer:
(a) soft iron

Question 12.
The value of current decreases from 5A to OA in 0.1 sec. If induced emf is 200 V then value of self inductance is
(a) 4H
(b) 3H
(c) 4m H
(d) 3mH
Answer:
(a) 4H

Question 13.
The change in magnetic field with time at a point produces
(a) Gravitational field
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Electric field
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Electric field

Question 14.
Which have maximum penetrating power ?
(a) X-ray
(b) Cathode ray
(c) cc-fay
(d) y-ray
Answer:
(d) y-ray

Question 15.
A spherical mirror is immersed in water. Its focal length
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Remains constant

Question 16.
A light rays goes from glass \(\left(\mu=\frac{5}{3}\right)\) to water \(\left(\mu=\frac{4}{3}\right)\) Its critical angle will

Answer:
(b)

Question 17.
The optical fibre works on the principle of
(a) scattering
(b) retraction
(c) dispersion
(d) total internal reflection
Answer:
(d) total internal reflection

Question 18.
The unit of power of lens is
(a) Lambda
(b) Candela
(c) Dioptre
(d) Watt
Answer:
(c) Dioptre

Question 19.
The image formed by simple microscope is
(a) Virtual and erect
(b) Inverted and virtual
(c) Real and erect
(d) Real and inverted
Answer:
(a) Virtual and erect

Question 20.
Light waves are
(a) Transverse wave
(b) Longitudinal wave
(c) Progressive wave
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Transverse wave

Question 21.
The bending of light from obstacle is called
(a) Dispersion
(b) Diffraction
(c) Refraction
(d) Interference
Answer:
(b) Diffraction

Question 22.
The momentum of photon which have 1 mega electron volt energy is
(a) 10^-22 kg m/s
(b) 10^-26 kg m/s
(d) 7 x 10^-24 kg m/s
(c) 5 x 10^-22 kg m/s
Answer:
(c) 5 x 10^-22 kg m/s

Question 23.
The energy of photon of wave length λ is
(a) he λ
\(\text { (b) } \frac{h c}{\lambda}\)
\(\text { (c) } \frac{h \lambda}{c}\)
\(\text { (d) } \frac{\lambda}{h c}\)
Answer:
\(\text { (b) } \frac{h c}{\lambda}\)

Question 24.
When a hydrogen atom is excited from its ground state to fourth orbit the maximum number of spectral line that can be emitted as
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 25.
The unit of Rydberg’s constant is
(a) m^-1
(b) m
(c) s^-1
(d) s
Answer:
(a) m^-1

Question 26.
Which is chargeless particle ?
(a) a-particle
(b) P-particle
(c) proton
(d) photon
Answer:
(d) photon

Question 27.
α-rays are
(a) Electromagnetic wave
(b) Negative charged particle
(c) Positive charged particle
(d) Chargeless particle
Answer:
(c) Positive charged particle

Question 28.
The mixing of impurity in semi conductor is called
(a) Doping
(b) Hybridization
(c) Sublimation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Doping

Question 29.
The current carriers are in N-type semi condutor is
(a) proton
(b) hole
(c) a-particle
(d) electron
Answer:
(d) electron

Question 30.
The resistance of semi conductor after increasing temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 31.
p-n junction diodes are used as
(a) An amplifier
(b) Oscillator
(c) Modulator
(d) Rectifier
Answer:
(d) Rectifier

Question 32.
P-type and N-type semi conductor are
(a) Electrically neutral
(b) Electrically positive
(c) Electrically negative
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Electrically neutral

Question 33.
The maximum distance upto which T.V. signal can be received from Antenna of height h is
\((a) \sqrt{2 h} \mathrm{R}
(b) h \sqrt{2 R}\)
\(\text { (c) } \mathrm{R} \sqrt{2 h}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
\((a) \sqrt{2 h} \mathrm{R}\)

Question 34.
The polarisation of ground wave is
(a) in any direction
(b) at angle 60°
(c) perpendicular
(d) parallel
Answer:
(c) perpendicular

Question 35.
The sun obtained radiant energy with
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) Nuclear disintegration
(c) Chemical reaction
(d) Nuclear fusion
Answer:
(d) Nuclear fusion

Non-Objective Type Questions
Short Answer Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 18 are short answers type question. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer any ten (10) question.

Question 1.
Define dielectric constant and dielectric strength.
Answer:
Dielectric constant:
The ratio of strength of applied electric field to the strength of reduced value of electric field on placing the dielectric b/w the plates of capacitor is called dielectric constant of dielectric medium. It is.also known as relative permitivity and denoted by K the value nx K is always greater than 1.

Dielectric Strength :
It is defined as the maximum value of electric field that can be applied to the dielectric without its electric breakdown.

S.I. unit of dielectric strength is Vm^-1.

Question 2.
Establish the relation between electric field (E) and potential (V)
Answer:
\(\mathrm{E}=-\frac{d v}{d r}\) Here, Negative sign indicates that when distance increases potential decreases.

The term \(\frac{d v}{d r}\) is called potential gradient.

Question 3.
Write two uses of potentiometer.
Answer:

• The electro motive force (emf) of two cells are compared by potentiometer,
• The internal resistance of cell is determined by potentiometer.

Question 4.
What is Seeback effect ?
Answer:
The phenomenon of producing thermoelectric emf (or thermoelectric current in thermo couple) by keeping its two junctions at different temperature is called Seeback effect. The current produced in this way is called thermoelectric current and emf produced in this may be called thermoelectric emf.

Question 5.
Distinguish between electromagnet and permanent magnet.
Answer:
Electro-magnet:

• Magnetic strength can be change
• The material of electro-magnet has high retentivity.
• The material of electro-magnet has low coericivity
• It has permeability.

Permanent magnet :

• Magnetic strength is fixed,
• It has low retentivity.
• It has low coericivity
• It has permeability

Question 6.
What is Eddy currents ?
Answer:
When magnetic flux linked with metallic conductor changes, induced current are set up in the conductor in the form of closed loops. These current looks like ‘eddies’ or ‘whirl pools’ and likewise are known as eddy currents.

Thus, eddy currents are the currents induced in a conductor, when placed in changing magnetic field.

Question 7.
What is Transformer ? Define transformation ratio.
Answer:
Transformer:
It is a device which is well to convert low voltage at high current in high a.c. voltage at low current and vice-versa. It is based on the principle of mutual induction.

Transformation Ratio :
The ratio of number of turns of wire in secondary coil to the number of turns of wire in primary coil, is called transformation ratio.

\(\frac{N s}{N p}=K\) K is called Transformation Ratio

Question 8.
The radius of curvature of double convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. If focal length of limits is 12 cm, then find the refractive index of the material of the prism.
Answer:
Given R₁ = 10 cm, R₂ = – 15 cm, f = 12 cm

Question 9.
What is critical angle ? And what are the conditions for total internal reflection ?
Answer:
Critical Angle :
The angle in incidence corresponding to which angle of refraction becomes 90°, is called critical angle. It is denoted by ic

Conditions for total Internal Reflection :

• The light should travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
• The angle of incidence must be greater than critical angle for given pair of media..

Question 10.
Write two properties of X-rays.
Answer:

• They are not deflected by electric or magnetic field.
• They travel with the speed of light as electro¬magnetic wave.

Question 11.
State two properties of nuclear force.
Answer:

• It is only attractive force,
• It is strong fundamental force in value/nature.

Question 12.
What is the de-Broglie associated with an electron, accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volt.
Answer:

Question 13.
What is photo electric effect ? Write photo electric equation.
Answer:
The phenomenon of emission of electron from the metallic surface when suitable wave length of light is incident upon it, is called photoelectric effect. Photoelectric equation is
\(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}=h v-h v_{0}\)

Question 14.
Write two characteristics of LASER rays.
Answer:

• It is highly directional with parallel beam.
• It is monochromatic and coherent.

Question 15.
Mention the advantages of LED.
Answer:

• Light emitting diodes are easily manufactured.
• LEDs have 10W cost.
• It works at 10W voltage as compared to in- condescend bulb.
• No warm up time is taken by them.
• They can emit monochromatic light as well as bright light.

Question 16.
What will be the result if a student connects Voltmeter in series and Ammeter in parallel in circuit by mistake ?
Answer:
By presence of Voltmeter in series with Resistance R in a circuit due to voltmeters high resistance, the current in the cirucuit I (= V/R) will decrease appreciably to I¹ (= V/R) and as their I¹ will further divide in Resistance R and ammeter, the currrent through ammeter I² will be eveiv lesser than I¹. Also the applied potential difference V will divide across resistance R and voltmeter, so the potential difference across voltmeter V₂ will be lesser than V. Since I₂ and V₂ both are lesser than I and V respectively, none, of the instrument will be damaged.

Question 17.
How do (a) the pole strength and (b) the magnetic moment of each part of bar magnet change, if is cut into two equal parts along its length.
Answer:

Initially, Magnetic moment M = m.2l

In this position length becomes half then
\(M^{1}=m \cdot \frac{2 l}{2}=\frac{M}{2}\)

Polar strength remains same but magnetic moment becomes half of its initial value.

Question 18.
Calculate induced emf in a moving conductor in an uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
Let length of conductor PQ – 1
As x = 0, magnetic flux Φ = 0.
When PQ moves a small distance from x to x + dx, then magnetic flux linked = BdA = Bldx

The magnetic field is from x = 0 to x = b, so final magnetic flux = ΣBldx = Bl Σdx
= Blb (increasing)

Mean magnetic flux from x = 0 to x = b is 1/2 Bib.

The magnetic flux from x = b to x = 2b is zero. Induced emf,
\(\varepsilon=-\frac{d \phi}{d t}=-\frac{d}{d t}(B l d x)=-B l \frac{d x}{d t}=-B l v\)

where \(v=\frac{d x}{d t}\) = velocity of arm PQ from x = 0 to x = b.
During return from x = lb to x = b the induced emf is zero; but now area is decreasing so magnetic flux is decreasing, and induced emf will be in opposite direction.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question No. 19 to 24 are long answers type question. Each question of this category carries 5 marks. Answer any three (3) question. (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 19.
Explain the principle on which Van de Graaff generator operates. Draw a labelled schematic sketch and write briefly its working.
Answer:
Construction :
It consists of a large hollow metallic sphere S mounted on two insulating columns A and B and an endless belt of rubber or silk is made to run on two pulleys P₁ and P₂ by the means of an electric motor. C₁ and C₂ are two sharp metallic spikes in the form of combs. The lower comb C₁ is connected to the positive terminal of a very high voltage source (HTS) (= 104 volts.) and the upper comb C₂ is connected to the inner surface of metallic sphere S.

Working:
When comb C₁ is given very high potential then it produces ions in its vicinity, due to action of sharp points. The positive ions, so produced, get sprayed on the belt due to repulsion between positive ions and comb C₁. These positive ions are carried upward by the moving belt. The pointed end of C₂ just touches the belt. The comb C₂ collects positive charge from the belt which immediately moves to the outer surface of sphere S. As the belt goes on revolving, it continues to take (+) charge upward which is collected by comb C₂ and transferred to outer surface of sphere S. Thus the outer surface of metallic sphere S gains positive charge continuously and its potential rises to a very high value.

When the potential of a metallic sphere gains very high value, the dielectric strength of surrounding air breaks down and its charge begins to leak, to the surrounding air. The maximum potential is reached when the rate of leakage of charge becomes equal to the rate of charge transferred to the sphere. Thus, the high voltages can he built up to breakdown field of the surrounding medium. To prevent leakage of charge from the sphere. the generator is completely enclosed in an earthed connected steel tank which is filled with air under high pressure.

Van de Graaff generator is used to accelerate stream of charged particles to very high velocities. Such a generator is installed at ¡IT Kanpur which accelerates charged particles upto 2 MeV energy.

Question 20.
(a) State the principle of working of a potentiometer.
(b) Draw a circuit diagram to compare the cmf of two primary cells. Write the formula used. How can the sensitivity of a potentiometer be increased?
Answer:
Principle of Potentrometer:
Principle: It is based on the principle that when constant current passes from unifòrm cross sectional area of wire thus potential drop across any portion f wire is directly proportional to length of that portion of wire.

V ∝ l

Comparison of emPs òf two cells:
First of all the ends of potentiometer are connected to a battery B1, key K and Rheostate Rh such that the positive terminal of battery 1 is connected to end A of the wire. This completes the primary circuit.

Now the positive terminals of the cells C₁ and C₂ whose emfs are to be compared are connected to A and the negative terminals to the jockey J through a two way key and a galvanometer (fig). This is the secondary circuit.

Method :
(i) By closing key K, a potential difference is established and rheostat is so adjusted that when jockey J is made to touch at ends A and B of wire, the deflection in galvanometer is on both sides. Suppose in this position the potential gradient is k.

(ii) Now plug is inserted between the terminals 1 and 3 so that cell C j is included in the secondary circuit and jockey J is slided on the wire at Pj (say) to obtain the null point. The distance of P, from A is measured. Suppose this length is l₁ i.e. AP₁ = l₁.

∴ The emf of cell C₁, ε₁ = kl₁ …………….. (i)

(iii) Now plug is taken off between the terminals 1 and 3 and inserted in between the terminals 2 and 3 to bring cells C₂ in the circuit. Jockey is slided on the wire and null deflection position P₂ is noted. Suppose distance of P₂ from A is I₂ i.e., AP-) = l₂
The emf of cell C₂, ε₂ = d₂ ………………(ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
\(\frac{\varepsilon_{1}}{\varepsilon_{2}}=\frac{l_{1}}{l_{2}}\) ………….(iii)

Thus emfs of cells may be compared. Out of these cells if one is standard cell, then the emf of other cell may be calculated.

Question 21.
State KirchofTs law. Write its one application based on this law (Wheatstone bridge).
Answer:
Kirchoff’s law : First law :
In the network of conductor the algebraic sum of current meeting at a point is always zero. It also causes junction rule.

Second law:
It states that in any closed part of an electrical circuit, the algebraic sum of the emf is equal to the algebraic sum of the products of the resistance and current flowing through them. It is also called loop rule. This law is based on the law of conservation of energy.

Wheatstone bridge :
It is one of the accurate arrangements for measuring an unknown resistance. It is based on the principle of Kirchoff s law.

Four resistance P, Q, R and S are connected to form a quadrilateral of galvanometer and a tapping key kl (called galvanometer) are connected between points B and D as shown in the figure.

Applying Kirchoff s second law, for closed part ABDA in the circuit I₁ P + I_g. g – (I – I₁) S = 0

where g is the resistance of the galvanometer
In the balanced state I_g = 0

Applying Kirchoff s law in closed part BDCB
I_g. g + (I – I₁ + I_g) R – (I₁ – I_g) Q = 0
O + (I – I₁) R – I₁ Q = 0
(I – I₁) R = I, Q
\(\frac{Q}{R}=\frac{I-I_{1}}{I_{1}}\) ………………… (ii)

From equation (i) and (ii)
\(\frac{P}{S}=\frac{Q}{R}\left[S=\frac{P}{Q} \cdot R\right]\)

Thus unknown resistance can be calculated.

Question 22.
Draw a ray diagram for formation of image of a point object by a thin double convex lens having radii of curvature Rj and R2. Hence, derive lens maker’s formula for a double convex lens. State the assumptions made and sign convention used.

Or, Using the relation for refraction at a single spherical refracting surface, derive the lens makers formula.
Answer:
Lens Maker’s Formula :
Suppose L is a thin lens. The refractive index of the material of lens is n₂ and it is placed in a medium of refractive index n₁. The optical centre of lens is G and X. X is principal axis. The radii of curvature of the surfaces of the lens are R₁ and R₂ and their poles are P₁ and P₂. The thickness of lens is t, which is very small. O is a point object on the principal axis of the lens. The distance of O from pole P₁ is u. The first refracting surface forms the image of O at I’ at a distance v’ from P₁.

From the refraction formula at spherical surface,
\(\frac{n_{2}}{v^{\prime}}-\frac{n_{1}}{u}=\frac{n_{2}-n_{1}}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}\) ………………………. (i)

The image I’ acts as a virtual object for second surface and after refraction at second surface, the final image is formed at I. The distance of I from pole P₂ of second surface is v. The distance of virtual object (T) from pole P₂ is (v’ -t).

For refraction at second surface, the ray is going from second medium (refractive index n₁) to first medium (refractive index n₂), therefore from refraction formula at spherical surface.

\(\frac{n_{1}}{v}-\frac{n_{2}}{\left(v^{\prime}-t\right)}=\frac{n_{1}-n_{2}}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\) ……………………. (ii)

For a thin lens t is negligible as compared to v’, therefore from (ii)

where \(\mathrm{l} n_{2}=\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\) is refractive index of second medium (i.e. medium of lens) with respect to first medium.

If the object O is at infinity, the image will be formed at second focus i.e.,

if u = α, v = f₂ = f, Therefore from equation (iv)

This is the formula of refraction for a thin lens. This formula is called Lens-Maker’s formula.

If first medium is air and refractive index of material of lens be n, then ₁n₂ = n, therefore equation (v) may be written as

Question 23.
(a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principles and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
(b) What is importance of a radial magnetic field and how is it produced?
Answer:
(a) Moving coil galvanometer : A galvanometer is used to detect current in a circuit.

Construction :
It consists of a rectangular coil around on a non-conducting metallic frame and is suspended by phosphor bronze strip between the pole pieces (N and S) of a strong permanent magnet.

A soft iron core in cylindrical form is placed between the coil.

One end of coil is attached to suspension wire which also serves as one terminal (T₁) of galvanometer. The other end of coil is connected to a loosely coiled strip which serves as the other terminal (T₂). The other end of the suspension is attached to a torsion head which can be rotated to set the coil in zero position. A mirror (M) is fixed on the phosphor bronze strip by means of which the deflection of the coil is measured by the lamp and scale arrangement. The levelling screws are also provided at the base of the instrument.

The pole pieces of the permanent magnet are cylindrical so that the magnetic field is radial at any position of the coil.

Principle and working :
When current (I) is passed in the coil, torque t acts on the coil, given by τ = NIABsinθ where θ is the angle between the normal to plane of coil and the magnetic field of strength B, N is the number of turns in a coil.

When the magnetic field is radial, as in the case of cylindrical pole pieces and soft iron core, then in every position of coil the plane of the coil, is parallel to the magnetic field lines, so that 0 = 90° and sin 90° = Deflecting torque, τ = NIAB

If C is the torsional rigidity of the wire and 0 is the twist of suspension strip, then restoring torque = Cθ

For equilibrium, deflecting torque = restoring torque
i.e., NIAB = Cθ
∴ \( \quad \theta=\frac{N A B}{C} I\) ………………. (i)
i.e, θ ∝ I

deflection of coil is directly proportional to current flowing in the coil and hence we can construct a linear scale.

(b) (i) Importance (or function) of uniform radial magnetic field : Torque as current carrying coil in a magnetic field is θ = NIAB sin θ
In radial magnetic field sin θ = 1, so torque is τ = NIAB.

This makes the deflection (θ) proportional to current. In other words, the radial magnetic field makes the scale linear.

(ii) Function of soft iron core : To produce radial magnetic field pole pieces of permanent magnet are made cylindrical and a soft iron core is placed between them. The soft iron core helps in making the field radial and reduce energy losses produced due to eddy currents.

Question 24.
Using the postulates of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, obtain an expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when atoms make a transition from the higher energy state with quantum number n_i. to the lower energy state with quantum number n_f (n_f < n_i)
Answer:
Suppose m be the mass of an electron and e its speed in nth orbit of radius r. The centripetal force for revolution is produced by electrostatic attraction between electron and nucleus.

Again from Bohr’s postulate for quantization of angular momentum

If n_i and n_f are the quantum numbers of initial and final states and E_i & E_f are energies of electron in H-atom in initial and final state, we have
\(\mathrm{E}_{i}=\frac{-\mathrm{R} h c}{n_{i}^{2}} \text { and } \mathrm{E}_{f}=\frac{-\mathrm{R} h c}{n_{f}^{2}}\)

If v is the frequency of emitted radiation, we get \(v=\frac{\mathrm{E}_{i}-\mathrm{E}}{h}\)
\(v=\frac{-\mathrm{R} c}{n_{i}^{2}}-\left(\frac{-R c}{n_{f}^{2}}\right) ; \quad v=\mathrm{R} c\left[\frac{1}{n_{f}}-\frac{1}{n_{i}^{2}}\right]\)

Bihar Board 12th Biology Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 3 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Total Marks : 70

Instructions for the candidates:

1. Candidates are required to give answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as for as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections: Section – A and Section – B
6. In Section – A, there are 35 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with blue/black ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/ Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet otherwise result will be treated as invalid.
7. In Section – B, there are Non-objective type questions. There are 18 Short answer type questions, out of which any 10 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 6 long answer type questions, out of which any 3 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

There are 1 to 35 objective type questions with 4 options. Choose the correct option which is to be answered on OMR Sheet. (35 x 1 = 35)

Question 1.
Fusion of male gametes with secondary nuclei is called
(a) Syngamy
(b) Triple fusion
(c) Geitenogamy
(d) Cleistogamy
Answer:
(b) Triple fusion

Question 2.
A large cluster of ribosome is called
(a) Megasome
(b) Microsome
(c) Polyribosome
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Polyribosome

Question 3.
Which of the following is a biofertilizer?
(a) Cynobacteria
(b) Mycorhiza
(c) Symbiotic bacteria
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Middle piece of a mammalian sperm contains
(a) Nucleus
(b) Centriole
(c) Mitochondria
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria

Question 5.
Acrosome is present in
(a) Sperm
(b) Ova
(c) Ovary
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Sperm

Question 6.
Anemophily can be best seen in
(a) Sunflower
(b) Maize
(c) Pig
(d) Yucca
Answer:
(b) Maize

Question 7.
Citric acid is produced by
(a) Acetobacter Aceti
(b) Yeast
(c) Aspergillus niger
(d) Streptococcus
Answer:
(c) Aspergillus niger

Question 8.
Which of the following cells present in mammalian testes help to nourish sperms?
(a) Leydig cell
(b) Male germ cells
(c) Autosomes
(d) Sertoli cells
Answer:
(d) Sertoli cells

Question 9.
Which one of the following is false fruit?
(a) Mango
(b) Banana
(c) Apple
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Apple

Question 10.
Binary fission occurs in
(a) Lotus
(b) Amoeba
(c) Water hyacinth
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Amoeba

Question 11.
The concept of Lac operon was given by
(a) Beadle & Tatum
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Jacobe and Monad
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Jacobe and Monad

Question 12.
The term ecosystem was coined by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Darwin
(c) A.G. Tansley
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) A.G. Tansley

Question 13.
Minamata disease is due to pollutant
(a) H₂
(b) SO₂
(c) Mercury
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) SO₂

Question 14.
Which one of the following is the high-milk yielding variety of cow?
(a) Holstein
(b) Pashmina
(c) Dorset
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Holstein

Question 15.
In plant meiosis occurs in
(a) Pollen grain
(b) Anther
(c) Root tip
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Anther

Question 16.
Example of corm is
(a) Onion
(b) Ginger
(c) Colocasia
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Colocasia

Question 17.
Which of the following is chain initiation of codon?
(a) AUG
(b) UAG
(c) UUA
(d) CCC
Answer:
(a) AUG

Question 18.
Widal Test is done to confirm
(a) Typhoid
(b) Malaria
(c) Filaria
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Typhoid

Question 19.
Which microbe is used in manufacturing of bread?
(a) Anabena
(b) Algae
(c) Baker’s Yeast
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Baker’s Yeast

Question 20.
Human genome project was discovered by
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) Francis Collins and Roderick
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Francis Collins and Roderick

Question 21.
Embryo sac is created by which of the following?
(a) Megaspore
(b) Microspore
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Megaspore

Question 22.
Down’s Syndrome in child is due to
(a) Gene mutation
(b) Monosomy
(c) Trisomy
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Trisomy

Question 23.
On which insect group Bt-toxin is effective?
(a) Dipteron
(b) Lepidopteron
(c) Choleopteron
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 24.
Miller prepared in laboratory
(a) Amino acid
(b) Ammonia
(c) Hydrogen
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Amino acid

Question 25.
Dinosaurs found in the era of
(a) Permian
(b) Modem
(c) Carboniferrous
(d) Jurassic
Answer:
(d) Jurassic

Question 26.
PCR is used in Amplification of
(a) Protein
(b) Enzyme
(c) Segment of DNA
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Segment of DNA

Question 27.
Genetically engineered human insulin is made by
(a) Plant
(b) Yeast
(c) Bacterium
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Bacterium

Question 28.
What is Mala D?
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Vitamins
(c) Medicine for fever
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Contraceptive

Question 29.
Which among is cancer?
(a) Leukemia
(b) Lymphoma
(c) Liposa
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 30.
Second trophic level in lake is
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 31.
Which of the following is known as green house gas?
(a) Methane
(b) CFC
(c) C02
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 32.
The first human like being the homonid was called
(a) Homo sapiens
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo habilis
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Homo habilis

Question 33.
AIDS is STD which is transmitted through
(a) Sexual contact
(b) Blood transmission
(c) Contaminated syringe
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 34.
The virus which cause cancer is known as
(a) TMV
(b) Oncogenic virus
(c) Bacteriophage
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Oncogenic virus

Question 35.
Ozone layer is found in
(a) Troposhpere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Stratosphere

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

In this section, there are 18 short answer type question (each carryies 2 marks) out of which answers any ten (10) questions. (10 x 2 = 20)

Question 1.
Explain contact inhibition?
Answer:
Uncontrolled cell division and proliferation growth & multiplication is sign of cancer cells & cancer disease. Cancerous cells are called malignant neoplasm, which develops on neighboring cells (by taking nutritive elements from them) grow and multiply. At last these cancerous cells kills the neighboring cells. These cancerous cells when come in contact with normal cell, they inhibit the growth and dynamic of these cells. This property of cancer cells are called contact inhibition.

Question 2.
Write the effects of Acid Rain.
Answer:
Effects of Acid Rain:

• Acid rain damages a number of heritage monuments due to deposition of acids, eg. Statue of Liberty, Taj Mahal etc.
• Acid rain kills the useful soil microbial community thus disturbing terrestrial ecosystems.
• In the aquatic ecosystem acid rain below 4 pH causes death of planktons, molluscs and fishes, therefore it disturbs the food chain.

Question 3.
How does killer T-cells act?
Answer:
T-cells attack directly and destroy antigens. In the process, these cells move to the site of invasion and produce chemicals that attract phagocytes and stimulate them so that they can feed more vigorously on antigens. They also produce substances that attract other T-cells.

Question 4.
Describe the symptoms & preventions of malaria disease.
Answer:
Symptoms :

1. Fever with coldness, chill, headache & muscular pain.
2. Decrease in RBC count.
3. Spleen increases in size
4. Fever comes alternatively at 48 hours.

Preventions :
(a) Through Destroying Mosquitoes – Malaria is spread by the bite of female anophelese mosquitoes, therefore, destroying them, we can prevent the disease. For this spraying of DDT & Kerosine and their biological control through Gambusia fish is very useful.

(b) Prevention through infection – Every person should use mosquito net. If necessary mosquito cream available in market should be used for protection from mosquito bite. Medicines like Quinine and Paludrin may be used for treatment of malaria.

Question 5.
Write short notes on tRNA.
Answer:
Transfer RNA : A transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule has the form of a cloves leaf that results from self
folding and base pairing, creating paired stems and unpaired loops. It has four regions (a) Carrier end (b) Recognition end (c) Enzyme site (d) Ribosome site. It forms about 10¬15% of the total RNA.

Question 6.
Write any four bacterial diseases and its pathogens.
Answer:
Cholera – Vibrio cliolerae
Tuberculosis – Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Titanus – Clostridium tetani
Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumoni

Question 7.
Name the enyzmes which are employed in genetic engineering.
Answer:
Following enzymes are employed in genetic engineering:
(a) Lysing enzymes – Lysozyme
(b) Cleaving enzymes
(i) Exonuclease
(ii) Endonuclease
(iii) Restriction endonuclease
(c) Synthesizing enzymes
(i) DNA polymerase
(ii) Reverse transcriptase
(d) Joining enzymes
(e) Alkaline phosphotase

Question 8.
Give differences between Nucleoside and Nucleotide.
Answer:

	Nucleoside	Nucleotide
1.	A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base covalently attached to sugar but without the phosphate group.	1. A nucleotide consists of nitrogenous base, asugar and one to three phosphate group.
2.	Nature is Alkaline.	2. Nature is Acidic.
3.	They are components of nucleotides	3. They are components  of energy carriers and co-enzymes.

Question 9.
Mention the names of Five diseases caused by Helminthes. Give symptoms & control of one disease.
Answer:
Name of disease:

• Ascariasis Ascaris
• Filariasis

Causative agent:

• lumbricoides
• Wuchereria bancrafti

Syptoms of Ascariasis-1. Loss of Apetite 2. Pain in stomach 3. Increased number of worms in intestine may block the cavity which may create problem.
Control-

1. After 12 hrs. of fasting one dose of Hexil resorsinol is given due to which worms come outside with stool.
2. Tetrachloroethylene and oil of Chenopodium in mixture is very effective.
3. Hetrazon & Piprazinhydrate drugs are helpful.

Question 10.
What is significance of Parthenogenesis?
Answer:
Significance of Parthenogenesis :

1. It helps in determining the sex of an animal as in honey bee.
2. It overcomes the wastage of energy spent upon the process of mating and fertilization by an animal.
3. It rapidly increases the number of animals in a population.

Question 11.
What is ’In situ’ conservation? What is its benefit?
Answer:
In situ conservation is the process of protecting the endangered species of plant or animal in the natural habitat either by protecting or cleaning up the habitat itself or by defending the species from predators. It helps in recovering the population in the surroundings where they have developed their distinctive features.

Question 12.
Expand MTP. Why it is so done?
Answer:
MTP stands for Medical Termination of Pregnancy. It is the intentional termination of pregnancy before full term. It is done to get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to rapes, or unprotected intercourse or failure of the contraceptive used during coitus. It has a significance role in decreasing the population though it is not performed for that purpose.

Question 13.
Describe the functions of antibody.
Answer:

1. Antibody neutralizes the toxins produced by bacteria.
2. By combining with antigen, antibody makes a macromolecular insoluble complete substance which inactivates the vital function of antigen.
3. By oponization antibody get the bacteria in such a way that phagocytes identify them easily.

Question 14.
Write on control of sound pollution.
Answer:
Control of Noise Pollution :

• There could be developed gadgets to control noise at source of noise.
• Industrial units should be established away from high density populated areas.
• Loudspeakers should be banned.
• Sound absorbers should be used.
• For control of sound pollution the laws should be enforced effectively.

Question 15.
Write short notes on Lamarckism.
Answer:
French naturalist Lamarck has said that ’evolution of life forms had been driven by use and disuse of organs. He gave the example of Giraffes who in an attempt to forage leaves on tall trees had to adapt by elongation of their necks. As they passed on the acquired character of elongated neck to succeeding generations. Giraffe slowly over the years, came to acquire long necks.

Question 16.
What do you mean by term-mycorrhiza?
Answer:
It is the symbiotic association of fungal hyphae roots of higher plants. The fungal hyphae absorbs phosphorus from the soil and passes it to the plant. The plant also gets other benefits such as resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerane to salinity and drought and increase in growth and development. In turn, the fungal hyphae get the nutrition from the plants.

Question 17.
What is test cross? Give its utility.
Answer:
Test cross : It is a cross between Fj hybrid and the recessive parent. The hybrid of F( generation, that is produced by inter-crossing two different parents may be similar phenotypically but genotypically, it may be heterozygous. To confirm the purity of Ft hybrid whether it is homozygous or heterozygous a test cross is done.

1. If the test cross yields offsprings of 50% dominant and 50% recessive character, then the F[ hybrid is heterozygous. It shows (1:1) test ratio for monohybrid cross and (1 : 1 : 1 : 1) for dihybrid cross.
2. If the test cross yields all the dominant character, then the Fj hybrid is homozygous.

Question 18.
State the relationship between linkage and crossing over.
Answer:
The linked genes do not always remain linked but are occasionally departed from other members of their linkage groups by crossing over. But the frequency of crossing over depends upon the distances between the various genes located on the same chromosome.

If the distances between the genes is more, then chances of crossing over and recombination are more. If the genes are closely placed on the same chromosome and the frequency of their separation is less than 50%, then there are less chances of departure of crossing over. In this case, the genes will remain linked and the progeny will be parental type.

Long Answer Type Questions

There are 6 long answers type question (each carrying 05 marks) out of which answers any three questions. (5 x 3 = 15)

Question 19.
What do you understand by Polyembryony? Describe it in detail. Discuss the Mendel’s Law of Inheritance.
Answer:
Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as polyembryony. Polyebryony was discovered by Leeuwenhoek in 1719. It is mostly found in gymnosperms and less found in angiosperms (eg. Mango, lemon etc.). It is of two types-true polyembryony and false polyembryony.

Causes of polyembryony are as follows :

1. When more than one embryo sac in ovule;
2. When more than one egg cell in embryo sac;
3. When after fertilization, egg is separated in many small parts and every part forms a embryo;
4. When any cell of embryo sac forms embryo;
5. When embryo is formed by outer cells of embryo sac.

Importance of polyembryony are:
(a) It is very important for horticulture scientists.
(b) By this same types of plants may be formed.
(c) Characters of mother plants are present in daughter plants.

There are four principles of Mendel’s law of inheritance which are based on Monohybrid and Polyhybrid crosses.

(a) Principles of paired factors: The determination of characters in an organism (diploid) is marked by atleast two factors. Such factors are present on two chromosomes of the same locus.

(b) Law of dominance: In any heterozygous organism the representation of characters takes place by two contrasting characters in which one is dominant while the other is recessive.

(c) Law of Segregation: Two factors of any character who remain together can not mix with one another. However they get separated during gametogenesis.

(d) Law of Independent Assortment: According to this principle, two factors of each character get separated independently during gamete formation and again become re-arranged in off springs.

Question 20.
Write about three ecological pyramids with suitable examples.
Answer:
Ecological Pyramids. represents the humerical relationship between different trophic levels of a food chain. These are of three types:
(i) Pyramid of Number: It indicates that the producers which form the base of the Pyramid are ingested large numbers by a comparatively small number of primary consumers. These eaten by a small number of primary cornivoes, which is also ingested by still amall number of tertiary consumers or secondary carnivores.

(ii) Pyramid of biomass: The biomass i.e. the living weigst of the organismas of the food chin present at any time in an ecosystem forms the pyramid of biomass. The pyramid of biomass indicates the decrease in biomass ar each troth ic level from base to apex.

(iii) Pyramid energy: It indicates the total energy at each trophic level of this food chain. It also exhibits that at each trophic level loss of energy and material takes place as the process of assimilation and growth are not 100% efficient.

Question 21.
What is Gene therapy ? Describe it by using the example of adenosine diaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Answer:
Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo. Here genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease. Correction of a genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.

The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine diaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial for the immunical system to function. This disorder is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adnesinal diaminase. In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. But the

problem with both of these approaches that they are not completely curative. As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocyte from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body. A functions ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into these lymphocytes which are subsequently returned to the patient. However, as these cells are no immortal the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.

Question 22.
What is Darwinism/Theory of Natural Selection?
Answer:
Darwinism is the theory of Natural Selection given by Charles Darwin. He supported evolution by following principles:

1. Over production: Every organisms possess enormous fertility. They multiply in geometric ratio. But all of them do not survive.
2. Limited food and space: Despite of rapid multiplication of all types of species, food and space resources remain limited, they are not liable to increase.
3. Struggle for existence: Organism will have struggle for their existence. It may be intraspecific, Interspecific and environmental.
4. Survival of the fittest: The organisms which are provided with favourable variations would survive because they are the fittest to face their surrounding, whole the unfits are destroyed.
5. Inheritance of useful variation: Such useful variations are transmitted to the next generation while non useful variations are eliminated.
6. Formation of new species : Such useful variations appear more prominantly in succeeding generations. And finally formation of new species takes place.

Question 23.
What do you understand by crossing over ? Decribe the mechanism of crossing over with suitable diagram.
Answer:
Crossing over is a recombination of genes due to exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes. It is the mutual exchange of sigments of genetic material between nonsister chromatids of two homologers chromosomes. So as to produce recombinations or new combinations of genes.
The nonsister chromatids in which exchange of segments has occured are called recombinants or cross overs while the other chromatids in which crossing over has not taken place are known as parental chromatids or non-cross-overs.

Mechanism of crossing over: Chromosomes get replicated in S-phase of interphase. Therefore, leptotene chromosomes are double stranded though the two strands are not visible due to presence of nucleoprotein complex in between the chromatids.

1. First of all homologous chromosomes pair.
2. Each member of pair devide into two chromatids. Thus each monovalent chromosome becomes bivalent.
3. If crossing over takes place then one chromosome twist-around the corresponding chromatid of the other chromosome.
4. At this point break occurs and broken par of one chromatid join the other broken part of other corresponding chromatid resulting in exchange of chromatid parts containing the genes.
5. The point at which crossing over takes place is called chiasmata.

Now each centromere of the homologous chromosome starts to separate from each other and the point of crossing over shifts towards the head of the chromosome. This movement of chiasmata is called criminalization. At the end of this the chromatids get separated.

Question 24.
Give an account of Pond Ecosystem.
Answer:
Pond Ecosystem: A small freshwater pond is a classic example of an ecosystem (aquatic). The follow¬ing two components are found in this ecosystem

(i) Abiotic components – The gases like CO₂ – O₂and other gases and inorganic substances are dissolved in pond water. Some abiotic components are found on the bottom of the pond. lit presence of sunlight, the green aquatic plants and algae manufacture the food material by photosynthesis with the help of CO₂ and water which is essential for different organisms. After the death of these plants and animals, the complex matter decomposes and goes into water again as abiotic component and thus ecosystem continues forever.

(a) Producers – All the green plants found in the pond e.g. Hydrilla, Marsilia, Ranunculus etc. and different types of Algae, Spirogyra, Volvox, Nostoc are examples of producers. All these producers prepare food by photosynthesis.

(b) Consumers – These can be divided into the following categories:
(iv) Primary Consuniers – Various types of small insects and their larvae, herbivores and fishes are primary consumers.
(v) Secondary consumers-These consumers are primary carnivores which eat the herbivores, e.g. frog, water snakes, bettles & some fishes etc.
(vi) Tertiary consumers-Carnivores fishes are found in the pond water which feed on the consumers of second-order small fishes.

(c) Decomposers – Various types of microorganisms eg. bacteria, fungi etc. are also present in the pond water which are called decomposers. They attack on dead bodies of producers and consumers and convert complex organic compounds into simple inorganic compounds.

Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Question Paper 4 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hour 15 Min
Full Marks : 100

Instructions

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
4. This question paper has two sections : Section -A and Section-B.
5. In Section-A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/ Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section-B, there are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 08 Long answer type questions, out-of which any 04 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. -1 to 50 have four options provided, out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each questiion carries 1 (one) mark. [50 x 1 = 50]

Question 1.
Primary element of success of management is _________
(a) Satisfied employee
(b) Large capital
(c) Big market
(d) Maximum production.
Answer:
(b) Large capital

Question 2.
The propounder of administrative management was _________
(a) Fayol
(b) Taylor
(c) Terry
(d) None of them.
Answer:
(a) Fayol

Question 3.
The father of scientific management was _________
(a) Gilbreth
(b) F.W. Taylor
(c) Robertson
(d) Charles Babbage.
Answer:
(b) F.W. Taylor

Question 4.
Main component (s) of New Economic Policy is/ are _________
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 5.
Co-ordination is
(a) voluntary
(b) necessary
(c) unnecessary
(d) wastage of time.
Answer:
(b) necessary

Question 6.
“A plan is a trap to capture the future.” This statement is of _________
(a) Newman
(b) Hurley
(c) Allen
(d) Terry
Answer:
(c) Allen

Question 7.
A good plan is
(a) Rigid
(b) Expensive
(c) Flexible
(d) Time consuming
Answer:
(c) Flexible

Question 8.
Which of the following depends on the sweet will of employees ?
(a) Formal organisation
(b) Informal oganisation
(c) Functional organisation
(d) Divisional organisation
Answer:
(b) Informal oganisation

Question 9.
Authority cannot be delegated of _________
(a) Routine work
(b) Secret work
(c) Ordinary work
(d) Easy work
Answer:
(c) Ordinary work

Question 10.
Responsibility is of _________
(a) Subordinates
(b) Officer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
Money spent on staffing is _________
(a) necessary
(b) wastage
(c) investment
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) investment

Question 12.
The manager is _________
(a) Boss
(b) Owner
(c) Leader
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Leader

Question 13.
Controlling is the aspect of management.
(a) theoretical
(b) practical
(c) mental
(d) physical
Answer:
(b) practical

Question 14.
Control is the function of the management.
(a) first
(b) last
(c) third
(d) second
Answer:
(b) last

Question 15.
Fixed capital is needed for period.
(a) short
(b) long
(c) short & long both
(d) none
Answer:
(b) long

Question 16.
The future of Stock Exchange in India is
(a) bright
(b) in dark
(c) ordinary
(d) no future
Answer:
(a) bright

Question 17.
Money market deals in _________
(a) short-term funds
(b) medium-term funds
(c) long-term funds
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) short-term funds

Question 18.
For Stock Exchange services of SEBI are _________
(a) voluntary
(b) necessary
(c) unnecessary
(d) compulsory
Answer:
(d) compulsory

Question 19.
Which one is not the consumer product amongst the following ?
(a) Raw materials
(b) Refrigerator
(c) Old statues
(d) Shoes
Answer:
(c) Old statues

Question 20.
Costliest means of advertising is _________
(a) Advertising
(b) Personal selling
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Public relation
Answer:
(b) Personal selling

Question 21.
Consumer rights under Consumer Protection Act are _________
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 22.
When was SEBI established ?
(a) 1978
(b) 1988
(c) 1989
(d) 1998
Answer:
(b) 1988

Question 23.
The disputes that come under Consumer Protection Act are _________
(a) disputes as to sale of shares by a company
(b) disputes of penal nature
(c) disputes as to sale of defective goods by the seller
(d) service disputes
Answer:
(c) disputes as to sale of defective goods by the seller

Question 24.
Which of the following is not a vcharacteristic of entrepreneurship ?
(a) Risk
(b) Innovation
(c) Creative activity
(d) Managerial training
Answer:
(d) Managerial training

Question 25.
In any organisastion motivation is _________
(a) essential
(b) unnecessary
(c) burden
(d) wastage of time and money
Answer:
(a) essential

Question 26.
Source of trade credit is _________
(a) long-term finance
(b) medium-term finance
(c) sort-term finance
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) sort-term finance

Question 27.
Comprehensive plan for accomplishing an organisation’s objectives is known as _________
(a) Policy
(b) Programme
(c) Objective
(d) strategy
Answer:
(d) strategy

Question 28.
Barrier in effective communication is _________
(a) language
(b) distance
(c) individual differences
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) language

Question 29.
Supervisor is the link between _________
(a) top & middle management
(b) workers & middle management
(c) workers & lower management
(d) workers & directors
Answer:
(c) workers & lower management

Question 30.
Main function of financial management is _________
(a) Procurement of funds
(b) Utilisation of funds
(c) Allocation of funds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Procurement of funds

Question 31.
Liquidity is created by _________
(a) Organised market
(b) Unorganised market
(c) Primary market
(d) Secondary market
Answer:
(a) Organised market

Question 32.
Stock Exchange protects the interest of _________
(a) Investor
(b) Company
(c) Government
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Investor

Question 33.
The birth place of concept of marketing management is _________
(a) England
(b) America
(c) France
(d) Japan
Answer:
(b) America

Question 34.
National Commission can settle consumer disputes
(a) up to Rs. 5 lakh
(b) up to Rs. 10 lakh
(c) up to Rs. 20 lakh
(d) above Rs. 1 crore.
Answer:
(c) up to Rs. 20 lakh

Question 35.
Entrepreneurial development programme provides _________
(a) unemployment
(b) employment
(c) dishonesty
(d) corruption
Answer:
(c) dishonesty

Question 36.
Management is _________
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Both Art and Science
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Both Art and Science

Question 37.
The maximum duration of commercial paper is _________
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 24 months
Answer:
(c) 12 months

Question 38.
Entrepreneurial Development Institute of India is situated in _________
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Mumbai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Ahmedabad

Question 39.
The essence of management is _________
(a) Co-ordination
(b) Organisation
(c) Staffing
(d) Control
Answer:
(a) Co-ordination

Question 40.
The organisation which spreads rumours is called _________
(a) formal
(b) informal
(c) centralised
(d) decentralised
Answer:
(b) informal

Question 41.
Commercial bill is written _________
(a) by purchaser
(b) by seller
(c) by bank
(d) by the government
Answer:
(c) by bank

Question 42.
Main elements of direction are _________
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 43.
Delegation of can be done.
(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Authority

Question 44.
Which of the following statements is inconsistent ?
(a) Management is purposeful
(b) It is an instinct process
(c) Management is universal
(d) Management is not separate from ownership
Answer:
(c) Management is universal

Question 45.
Component (s) of new economic policy is /are _________
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 46.
depends on the wall of the employees.
(a) Formal organisation
(b) Informal organisation
(c) Functional organisation
(d) Divisional organisation
Answer:
(d) Divisional organisation

Question 47.
Method(s) of training is /are _________
(a) Conference
(b) Lectures
(c) prenticeship
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) prenticeship

Question 48.
Motivational means should be determined on the basis of _________
(a) Group
(b) Individual
(c) Job
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 49.
In a business enterprise controlling is required _________
(a) at the time of setting up of business
(b) continuously
(c) at the time of operation of business
(d) at the end of the year
Answer:
(b) continuously

Question 50.
Main function(s) of financial management is/are _________
(a) Financial planning
(b) Procurement of funds
(c) Allocation of net profits
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question no. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 out of them. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 x 3 = 30)

Question 1.
Controlling is forward looking. Explain.
Answer:
Controlling is looking forward because of remedial action is the essence of controlling. This will also include action to modify and improve upon the existing plans to prevent reference of the deviation noticed by the manager. Controlling helps in adoption of new plans and revision of existing plans on the basis of actual performance against standards.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of the term ‘deviation’ as used in the control function of management.
Answer:
Planning is provasive planning is required all levels of management as well as departments of the organisaiton. It is not exclusive function of top management nor of any particular departments.

Question 3.
What do you mean by capital structure ?
Answer:
Capital structure refers to the composition or make up or long-term sources of funds as : equity shares preference shares, debentures, retained earnings and long-term loans. Basically, there are two types of long-term funds :

1. Owner’s capital and
2. Borrowed capital

All these types of finance have to be in the right proportion in order to ensure an optimum capital structure.

Question 4.
What is money market ?
Answer:
Money market is that makret where seller and purchaser or buyer of money are available. Money buyers are those who takes loans to produce goods or services and money sellers are those who gives loan to industries.

Question 5.
Write two elements of marketing.
Answer:
Two elements of marketing :

1. To distribution of goods and services
2. To creation of utilities.

Question 6.
What do you mean by pricing of a product ?
Answer:
It is an important work of marketing management to determining the price of marketable goods. A producer or manufacturer determines the price after comprehensive study.

Question 7.
Advertising confuses the buyers. How ?
Answer:
Some traders or businessmen advertises with misrepresentation false statement and fraudulent advertisement because of this buyer get confused and tence wrong decision about trading and got cheated. They confused to what is to buy or not.

Question 8.
What is entrepreneurship ?
Answer:
Enterpreneurship is combination of a skill view point, thinking. Technique and work method.

Question 9.
Explain the role of Henry Fayol in management.
Answer:
Fayol developed a functional approach’ to management. Realising the universal nature of management problems he developed general principles of management and administration this ideas are contained in his monograph” General and industrial administration.” This book throws light on the following points :

1. Classification of Industrial Activities
2. Management qualities and training
3. General Principles of Management
4. Elements of Management.

Question 10.
Write the limitations of planning ?
Answer:
Following are the limitation of planning :

1. Forecasting may go wrong : Financial plans are prepared by taking into account the expected situation in the future. Since the future is not predictable and thing may not happen as these are for casted the utility of planning is limited.
2. Regidity : Once a plan is prepared, it becomes difficult to change it. A change in the circumstances may demand change in the financial plan but managers may not like so.
3. Problem of Co-ordination : Finance functions is the most important of all the functions.

Question 11.
Can accountability be delegated ?
Answer:
According to principle of absolute responsibility authority can be delegated but responsibility can not be delegated by a manager. The manager remains responsible or accountable to his own superior for the tasks which he may assign to his subordinates. Every superior is responsible, for the acts of his sub-ordinates to whom he delegates authority for any work.

Question 12.
What do you mean by staffing ?
Answer:
Staffing may be defined as’the managerial function of hiring and developing the required personnel to fill in various position in the organisation. It is concerned with employing the right type of people and developing their skill through training. It focuses on maintaining and improving the competence and performance of the personnel in the organisation.

Question 13.
Mention any three elements of Directing.
Answer:
Following are the three elements of directing :

1. Supervision : It implies instructing, observing, monitoring and guiding the sub-ordinates at work place to ensure that plans and procedures are implemented as intended.
2. Leadership : It involves ability to use non- coersive influence on the activities, goals and motivation of others for achieving organisational objectives.
3. Motivation : Motivation is a mental state. It is a driving force that people to action and continues them in action. Motivation is the set of forces that causes people to behave in certain ways.

Question 14.
What is meant by ‘Profit sharing’ ?
Answer:
Profit sharing : When a firm earned profit. It divided the profit amongest their partners on the basis of equal ratio or on the ratio as determined in the deed. It is called profit sharing

Question 15.
What are the different traditional techniques of controlling ?
Answer:
Following are the technique of controlling :

1. Break-even point: Break even point is an important tool which is used by managerial control. That level of sales or production where there is no loss or no profit is creled break even point.
2. pecial report and analysis : Generally special report and analysis is used to control special types of problems.
3. Budgetary control : Budgetary control is a composition between Predicted data and actual data.

Question 16.
Explain the importance of Financial planning.
Answer:
Importance of Financial Planning :

1. Co-ordination : This is done by laying down financial objectives, plans and programmed which are coherent with each other. The plan is communicated to all managers in different departments and ensures that finds are alloted to each department according to their requirements. All these factors help in achieving co – ordinations.
2. Financial control : Financial planning is the basis of financial control. It sets standards against which performance of the financial plan can be compared. The resulting deviations can be corrected and also prevented.

Question 17.
State any three characteristics of fixed capital.
Answer:
Following are the three features of fixed capital :

1. It remains for long period in business.
2. Fixed capital is used to purchase of fixed assets examples, e.g. land, building, machines etc.
3. The quantity of fixed capital is depend on the nature of business.

Question 18.
Define and explain the term ‘stock exchange’.
Answer:
Definition of stock-exchange : “Stock exchange means any body of individuals, whether incorporated or not contributed for the purpose of assisting, regulating or controlling the business of buying selling and dealing in securities.
“Stock-exchange are marketing places where securities that have been listed there on may be bought and sold for either investment or speculation.” – Pyle, Marketing Principles.

Question 19.
What is the concept of marketing mix ?
Answer:
Marketing mix refers to combination of four basic elements, viz., Product mix, Price, promotion and place known as four P’s marketing.

1. Product mix : Product mix refers to anything which is offered to the public for sales. It may be a physical object service or an idea.
2. Price mix : Goods are sold for a price consumer’s are very sensitive to price changes.
3. Promotion mix : Promotion includes all those activities which a business performs to persuade and motivate people to buy their product.
4. Place : Place mix refers to the activities that are involved in transferring ownership to customers and to make products available at the right time and please.

Question 20
What are the different types of labels ?
Answer:
The label is an information they wrapper or seal attached to a product or product’s package.
Types of label :

1. Brands label
2. Grade labels
3. Descriptive cu-informative labels.

Question 21.
What do you mean by controlling ?
Answer:
Controlling is the process through which managers assure that the actual activities conform to the planned activities.

Question 22.
Write any two advantages of budgetary control.
Answer:
Two advantages of Budgetary Control :

1. Budgets serve as a target.
2. Budgeting helps to express diverse action.

Question 23.
What is the concept of gross working capital ?
Answer:
Gross working capital means the investment in all current assets namely; cash, inventories, receivables and prepaid expenses taken together.

Question 24.
What are the two segments of capital market ?
Answer:
The two segment of capital market :

1. Organised Capital Market
2. Unorganised Capital Market

Question 25.
Name any three Non-Governmnet Organisations (NGO’s).
Answer:
Name of three Non-government Organisation :

1. Consumer Association, Kolkata
2. Karnataka Consumer Service Society, Bangluru.
3. VOICE, New Delhi.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are Long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them. Each question carries 5 marks. (4×5 = 20)

Question 26.
Define the concept of management. Discuss its importance.
Answer:
The term ‘management’ has been used in different sense. Sometimes it is used in the sense of managing the ‘Group of management personnel’ in an organisaiton. At other times, management refers to the process of planning organisation, staffing, directing co-ordinating and controlling.

1. Definition of management : “To manage is to forcast and to plan to organise to command to co-ordinate and controll” – Henry Feyol.
2. “Management means the decision making.” – Rose Moore

Importance of management :

1. Maximum results with maximum resources : Management tries to secure the maximum results through the use of maximum efforts and resources.
2. Realisation of personel objectives : Some industrial concern are downed on account of skirikes and lockout. Such situation mainly arise when there is mismanagement on the part of managers.
3. Economic growth : Management is a vital force for boosting the economic growth of a country.
4. Protection of investors interests : Most of the organisaiton are run by employees-managers. They look after the interests of investors, shareholders, debenture holders etc.

Question 27.
Discuss the nature and purpose of organisation.
Answer:
Organisation is structural relationship by which an enterprise is bound together and the frame work in which individual effort is controlled.
Name of Organisaiton :

1. Formal relationship : Different type of relationship exists in formal organisation. These are senior subordinate, lateral and employee relationships.
2. Establishing co-ordination : Formal organisation structure establishes co-ordination among vairous departments and smothers the work of the entire organisation.
3. Delibrately designed structure : Formal organisation is delibrately designed by the top management. Therefore, everything done in it is official.
4. Focus on work : It lays emphasis on the accomplishment of work rather than on social relationship.

Purpose of Organisation :

1. Identification of activities and their division
2. Grouping the activities into departments.
3. Assigning duties
4. Establishing work-relationship.

Question 28.
What do you mean by recruitment ? Explain the external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
Meaning and definition of recruitment : Recruitment function is concerned with discovering the sources of. manpower required and tapping these sources.

1. “Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them- to apply for jobs in the organisation.” – Flippo.
2. “It is the process of attracting poential employees to the company.”

External sources of recruitment:

1. Factory gate : For recruitment of semi-skilled and unskilled employee a notice is put at the factory gate specifying the requirements of various types of workers.
2. Waiting list : Very often organisations prepare and maintain a waiting list of employees from the application of those condidates who had applied but could not be selected.
3. Employees recommendation : A large number of organisation asks their present employees to recommend the name of suitable candidates as anol when a vacancy arises.
4. Private placement agencies : These are of recent origin. Now-a-days reputed private placement agencies such as Tata Consultancy Service are doing commendable job in this field.
5. Employment exchange : Employment exchanges have been set up by government in metropolitan and other big cities.
6. Media advertisement : By far advertisement in leading newspaper, magazines of external recruitment for skilled and specialised jobs.

Question 29.
What is the meant by the term ‘supervision’ in management ? Explain briefly the role of a supervisor.
Answer:
Supervision means overseeing the work of the subordinates. Every managers has to guide and control his sub-ordinates while they are performing the task assigned to them. We can therefore say that supervision refers to the direct and immediate guidance and control of sub-ordinates in the performance of their tasks. Terry and Franklin define supervision as, guiding and sources to accomplish stated work outputs.”

Role of Supervisor in brief :

1. Face-to-face contact
2. An important link
3. Creating congenial atmosphere
4. Giving guidance
5. Ensures quality,
6. Giving feedback
7. Keeping up the organisational commitments
8. Suggesting Taining Programmes.

Question 30.
What do you mean by Financial Planning? Discuss the importance of Financial Planning in financial management.
Answer:
Financial Planning : Financial Planning means deciding in advance how much to spend on what to spend, according to the finds at four disposal. According to Worker and Baughan, “Financial planning pertains only to the functions of finance and includes the determination of the firms financial objectives, formulating and promulagating financial policies and developing financial procedures.”

Element determining the financial planning or Important of Financial Planning :

1. Nature of Industry : The nature of industry of business plays decisive role in drafting of financial plan. A capital intensive industry like cement, paper or fertilizer requires more capital while a labor intensive enterprise requires less amount of capital.
2. Status of unit: This step includes the evolution of increment characteristics of the wait like age size, market area, scope and nature of the field then reputation of management etc.
3. Flexibility : Flexibility and not the rigidity should be the main principal to be followed in the financial planning.
4. Plans for the future growth : Firms expect to grow larger in size as they grow old. So while undertaking current financing decisions the factors of future growth should be suitable weighted.
5. Capital structure : The capital structure of the company must be of high grade securities. It should be diversified but balanced.

Question 31.
Explain briefly any five factors to be considered in determining working capital requirements of an enterprise.
Answer:
Following are the factors which are determining working capital :

1. Size of business : Larger size of the business enterprise greater would be the need for working capital. The size of a business may be measured in terms of scale of its business organisation.
2. Production cycle : Production cycles means the time span between the purchase of raw material and its conversion into finished goods. If the production cycle is small the need for working capital will also be small.
3. Production policy : The need for working capital is also determined by production policy. The demand for certain products is seasonal. Two types of production policies may be adopted for such products. Firstly, the goods may be produced in the months of demand and Secondly, the goods may be produced through the year.
4. Availability of credit from banks : If a firm can get easy bank credit facility in case of need, it will operate with less working capital.
5. Efficiency of management : Efficiency of management is also a significance factor to determine the level of working capital. Management can reduce the need for working capital by the efficient utilization of resources. If an accelerate tea pace of cash cycle and there by use the same amount working capital again very quickly.

Question 32.
Explain briefly the benefits of advertising to manufacturers and society.
Answer:
(a) Advantages to manufacturer :

1. Advertising creates demand for the producers of a company
2. It helps salesman to secure orders easily,
3. A good image of the firm is created
4. New products can be introduced easily through advertising.

(b) Advantages to society :

1. It provided direct employment to a large number of people engaged in designing, writing and insuring advertisement
2. It is an important source of income for newspapers, magazine, radio and television. It helps the press in reducing the cost of publications.

Question 49.
Explain any six rights of consumers.
Answer:
Following are the six rights of consumers.

1. Right to safety : Consumers have the right to protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.
2. Right to information : The consumer protection act lays down that every consumer has the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity and standard of goods and services.
3. Right to choose : Every consumer has the right to choose the goods of his/her liking. Consumers have right to be assured, wherever possible access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices.
4. Right to heard : In case a consumer has been exploited, he/she has the right to be heard and be assured that he/she interests would receive due consideration at appropriate forums.
5. Right to seek redressal : The consumers have the right to seek redress against unfair trade practices or unsecruplous exploitation.
6. Right to consumer education : Consumer can seek information about the existing acts and agencies set up for their protection.

Question 33.
What are the main functions of an entrepreneur ?
Answer:
Following are the function of entrepreneur :

1. Take risk
2. Power to devisionl,
3. Managerial ability
4. Function of renovation
5. Creation of capital
6. Per capital income
7. To increase the opportunities of employment
8. Development of area.

Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Question Paper 2 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hour 15 Min
Full Marks : 100

Instructions

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefull.
4. This question paper has two sections : Section -A and Section-B.
5. In Section-A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/ Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section-B, there are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 08 Long answer type questions, out-of which any 04 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. -1 to 50 have four options provided, out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each questiion carries 1 (one) mark. [50 x 1 = 50]

Question 1.
Henri Fayol was a ___________
(a) Scientist
(b) Mining engineer
(c) Accountant
(d) Production engineer
Answer:
(b) Mining engineer

Question 2.
Of all managerial activities planning is the :
(a) Beginnings
(b) End
(c) Beginning & end both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Beginning & end both

Question 3.
Staffing is:
(a) part of organisation
(b) function of Management
(c) part of personnel Management
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 4.
How are the principles of Management formed ?
(a) In a laboratory
(b) By experiences of managers
(c) By experiences of customers
(d) By propagation of social scientists
Answer:
(b) By experiences of managers

Question 5.
The following is not an objective of
Management: .
(a) earning profits
(b) growth of the organisation
(c) providing employment
(d) policy making
Answer:
(c) providing employment

Question 6.
Controlling is the aspect of Management:
(a) theoretical
(b) practical
(c) mental
(d) physical
Answer:
(b) practical

Question 7.
Commercial bill is written :
(a) by purchaser
(b) by seller
(c) by bank
(d) by the government
Answer:
(c) by bank

Question 8.
Marketing concept is :
(a) Production-oriented
(b) Sales-oriented
(c) Customer-oriented
(d) All the three
Answer:
(b) Sales-oriented

Question 9.
Which of the following statements best describes the principle of ‘Division of Work’
(a) Work should be divided into small tasks.
(b) Labour should be divided
(c) Resources should be divided among jobs
(d) It leads to specialisation
Answer:
(a) Work should be divided into small tasks.

Question 10.
Management control is done :
(a) by lower level managers
(b) by middle level managers
(c) by top level managers
(d) by all level managers
Answer:
(d) by all level managers

Question 11.
Money market deals in :
(a) Short term funds
(b) Medium term funds
(c) Long term funds
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Short term funds

Question 12.
Treasury Bills are basically :
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds
(b) An instrument to borrow long-term funds
(c) An instrument of capital market
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds

Question 13.
Policy formulation is the function of:
(a) top level managers
(b) middle level managers
(c) operational Management
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) top level managers

Question 14.
Consumer dispute settlement agencies are :
(a) District Forum
(b) State commission
(c) National commission
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 15.
There is no discipline in ___________ Organisation :
(a) formal
(b) divisional
(c) functional
(d) informal
Answer:
(d) informal

Question 16.
Goods may be purchased on the basis of:
(a) inspection
(b) pattern and sample
(c) description & brand
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 17.
The cheapest source of Finance is:
(a) debenture share
(b) equity share capital
(c) preference share
(d) retained earning
Answer:
(b) equity share capital

Question 18.
Supervisor is ___________ of the workers.
(a) friend
(b) guide
(c) philosopher
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) guide

Question 19.
Budget refers to :
(a) Planned target of performance
(b) Use of handling future activities
(c) Systematic action and allocation of resources
(d) Statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms
Answer:
(d) Statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms

Question 20.
In which form of Management science is :
(a) Pure Science
(b) Soft Science
(c) Semi Science
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Soft Science

Question 21.
Recruitment in the life of Organisation is done :
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Occasionally
(d) Continuosly
Answer:
(d) Continuosly

Question 22.
Marketing means:
(a) Transfer of ownership
(b) Formation of marketing policies
(c) Salesmanship and sales promotion
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Formation of marketing policies

Question 23.
Which of the following is not a principle of Management given by Taylor ?
(a) Science, not rule of thumb
(b) Functional foremanship
(c) Co-operation, not individualism
(d) Harmony, not discord
Answer:
(b) Functional foremanship

Question 24.
Which of the following is not a controlling technique ?
(a) Break-even anaysis
(b) Cash flow statement
(c) Budget
(d) Managerial Audit
Answer:
(b) Cash flow statement

Question 25.
In India Entrepreneurial development programme is:
(a) Necessary
(b) Unnecessary
(c) Wastage of time
(d) wastage of money
Answer:
(a) Necessary

Question 26.
The disputes coming under Consumer Protection Act are:
(a) Dispute as to shares of company
(b) Dispute as to service
(c) Dispute as to sale of defective goods by the seller
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Dispute as to sale of defective goods by the seller

Question 27.
Stock exchange protects the interest of:
(a) Investors
(b) Company
(c) Government
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Investors

Question 28.
Which of the following is not an element of promotion mix ?
(a) Advertisement
(b) Personal selling
(c) Sales Promotion
(d) Product Development
Answer:
(d) Product Development

Question 29.
Co-ordination is:
(a) Voluntary
(b) Necessary
(c) Unnecessary
(d) Wastage of time
Answer:
(b) Necessary

Question 30.
Principle of Management are :
(a) dynamic
(b) flexible .
(c) Universal
(d) all of above
Answer:
(d) all of above

Question 31.
___________ refers to those general statement which are decided for the guidance of the employees while taking decision.
(a) objectives
(b) strategy
(c) policies
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) strategy

Question 32.
In the process of delegation, accountability cannot be:
(a) shared
(b) delegated
(c) neither (a) & nor
(b) (d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) (d) both (a) and (b)

Question 33.
Management itself expands :
(a) Through delegation
(b) Through centralisation
(c) Through decentralisation
(d) Through all
Answer:
(a) Through delegation

Question 34.
Control is the ___________ function of the Management:
(a) first
(b) last
(c) third
(d) second
Answer:
(b) last

Question 35.
The leader takes work from his subordinates :
(a) by tact
(b) by rod
(c) by threatening
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) by tact

Question 36.
The foremost need of development in a country is of:
(a) Physical Resources
(b) Economic Resources
(c) Human Resources
(d) Efficient Management
Answer:
(b) Economic Resources

Question 37.
A good plan is :
(a) Rigid
(b) Expensive
(c) flexible
(d) Time consuming
Answer:
(b) Expensive

Question 38.
Which of the following is not a staffing function :
(a) Planning
(b) recruitment
(c) selection
(d) training
Answer:
(a) Planning

Question 39.
Effective controlling is :
(a) static
(b) determined
(c) dynamic
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) dynamic

Question 40.
Liquidity is created by :
(a) Organised market
(b) Unorganised market
(c) Primary Market
(d) Secondary Market
Answer:
(d) Secondary Market

Question 41.
Which of the following is not the tool of sales promotion ?
(a) Samples
(b) Prize in packet
(c) Coupons
(d) Publicity
Answer:
(c) Coupons

Question 42.
Modern approach of financial Management is :
(a) procurement of funds
(b) utilisation of funds
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b) both

Question 43.
The functions of Entreprener are :
(a) To imagine business idea
(b) To study project feasibility
(c) To set up enterprise
(d) All of above
Answer:
(c) To set up enterprise

Question 44.
Which of the following is function of packaging ?
(a) Protection
(b) convenience
(c) Identification
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 45.
Planning is not the remedy of all business evils, because:
(a) planning is generally biased & time consuming
(b) planning is goal oriented
(c) planning enables us to face future uncertainties
(d) planning improves competitive strength
Answer:
(c) planning enables us to face future uncertainties

Question 46.
Which of the following is a determinant of Capital structure ?
(a) Cash Flow Statement
(b) Interest Coverage Ratio
(c) Debt Service Coverage Ratio
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Interest Coverage Ratio

Question 47.
Which of the followiwng is not a characteristic of Entrepreneurship ?
(a) Risk taking
(b) Innovation
(c) Creative activity
(d) Managerial training
Answer:
(d) Managerial training

Question 48.
Grapevine Communication is :
(a) informal
(b) formal
(c) written
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) informal

Question 49.
The foremost stock exchange in the world was established in:
(a) Delhi.
(b) London
(c) America
(d) Japan
Answer:
(b) London

Question 50.
State Commission can settle consumer disputes :
(a) up to 5 lakh Rs.
(b) up to 10 lakh Rs.
(c) up to 20 lakh Rs.
(d) Above 20 lakh Rs.
Answer:
(d) Above 20 lakh Rs.

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question no. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 out of them. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 x 3 = 30)

Question 1.
Does mere planning ensure success ?
Answer:
Does mere planning ensure success ? yes planning ensure success merely if following features are consiist in planning.

1. Planning must be simple and understandable.
2. planning must be according to the employee.
3. Planning must be felxible
4. Planning must be consist element of selection.
5. Draft separate planning for excution of planning.

Question 2.
What is meant by lay-off ?
Answer:
A lay off is the temporary suspension of employment of an employee or more commonly, a group of employees for business reasons. Such as personnel management or down sizing an organisation.

Question 3.
What is meant by investment decision ?
Answer:
A determination made by direction and management as to how, when, where and how much capital will be spent on investment opportunities, is called investment decesion.

Question 4.
Why NSEI is known as Model Exchange ?
Answer:
National stock exchange is the first stock exchange in India. The security transaction in stock exchange of India is very transmitted and simple so it is called model exchange.

Question 5.
The word communication has been derived from Latin word ‘Communist.’ What does it mean ?
Answer:
The word communication is derived from the latin word communist meaning “common”.

Question 6.
“Management is a soft science.” How ?
Answer:
Management is a soft science because management have principles like science as they can applied anytime, any where but it is not exact science because principle are applied according to situations.

Question 7.
What is meant by Authority ?
Answer:
Authority is refers to the power to take decisions.

Question 8.
Why is it said that ‘Controlling is blind without planning ?
Answer:
Under the system of controlling actual work performance is compared with the standards. Hence, if the standards are not determined there is no justification left for control, and the standards are determined under planning. It is therefore, said that control is blind without planning or it is with out any base.

Question 9.
What is meant by Channels of Distribution ?
Answer:
A distribution channel refers to the path or route through which goods and services traval to get from the place of production or manufacture to the final users. It has at its center transportation and logistical considerations.

Question 10.
Why it is said that principles of Management are universal ?
Answer:
Management is an universal phenomenon in the same that it is common and essential element in all enterprises. Every group effort requires setting objectives, making plans, handling people, co – ordinating and controlling activities achieving goass and, evaluating performance directed towards organisational goals.

Question 11.
What is meant by the ‘Right to Choose’ to a consumer ?
Answer:
Following are the six rights of consumers.

1. Right to safety : Consumers have the right to protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.
2. Right to information : The consumer protection act lays down that every consumer has the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity and standard of goods and services. ,
3. Right to choose : Every consumer has the right to choose the goods of his/her liking. Consumers have right to be assured, wherever possible access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices.
4. Right to heared : In case a consumer has been exploited, he/she has the right to be heared and be assured that he/she interests would receive due consideration at appropriate forums.
5. Right to seek redressal : The consumers have the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or unsecruplous exploitation.
6. Right to consumer education : Consumer can seek information about the existing acts and agencies set up for their protection.

Question 12.
What is meant by ‘Leadership’ ?
Answer:
Leadership may be defined as the ability to exert interpersonal influence by means of communication towards the achievement of a goal.

Question 13.
State any two difference between Advertising and Personal Selling.
Answer:
Advertising :

1. one-way communication.
2. Pull strategy.
3. Mass Media.

Personal Selling :

1. Two-way communication.
2. Push-strategy
3. Sales personnel.

Question 14.
What is meant by-On-the job training ?
Answer:
On the job training : The training of operations is largely undertaken through on the job methods on the other hand managers are trained by taking new courses under both on the job and off the job method.

Question 15.
State two points of importance of Supervision.
Answer:
Following are the two importance of supervision.

1. Optimum utilization of Resoures : Supervision develops work skills which help in optimum utilization of resources.
2. Controlling performance : Supervision insures performance of work as per the targets. Supervisor assumes responsibility for the accomplish ment of task. Undertaken and motivates his fellow workers.

Question 16.
What are the two components of Capital market ?
Answer:
Following are the two componants of capital market.

1. Organised capital market.
2. Unorganised capital market

Question 17.
What is Budgetary control ?
Answer:
Budgetary control refers to how well managers utilize budgets to monitor and control costs and operations in given accounting period. In other words, budgetary control is a process for managers to set financial and performance goals with budgets, compare the actual results, and adjust performance, as it is needed.

Question 18.
State any two features of Scientific Management.
Answer:
Following are the two features of scientific management.

1. Systematic Approach.
2. Brings complete mental change.

Question 19.
What do you mean by Entrepreneurship ?
Answer:
Enterpreneurship is an innovative function. It is a leadership rather than an ownership.

Question 20.
How “scale of operations” affect the requirement of fixed Capital ?
Answer:
The companies which are operating at large scale require mare fixed capital as they need more machineries and other assets where as small scale enterprise need less amount of fixed capital.

Question 21.
“Sales promotion makes advertising effective.” How ?
Answer:
Once the samples of a particular product reach to the consumers through sales promotion the advertisement of the same product gets more effective.

Question 22.
Give two advantages of functional Organisation.
Answer:
Following are the advantages of functional organisation.

1. Benefits of specification.
2. Co-ordination is established.

Question 23.
Give a definition of management.
Answer:
According to George R. Terry and Stephen G. Franklin, “Management is a distinct process, consisting of activities of planning, organizing, actuating and controlling performed to determine and accomplish stated objectives with the use of human beings and other resources.”

Question 24.
Differentiate between time study and motion study.
Answer:
The main points of differences between Time study and Motion study are as follow-

1. Motion study involves the study of motions on operation while the time study notes the time involved in carrying out of each element of operations
2. The main aim of motion study is to reduce wastage of time and material scraping the unnecessary movements whereas the time study aims at fixing the standard time of carrying out a job/work
3. Time study is not suitable for workers where quality is prime consideration. Motion study is suitable for all types of jobs/work.

Question 25.
What is functional organisation ? What are its characteristics ?
Answer:
Functional organisation is developed on the basis of important of functions of the organisation.
Following are the features/Advantages of functional organisations :

1. System in place of haphazardness
2. Effective and easy supervision
3. Better cordination
4. Economical
5. Human development

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are Long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them. Each question carries 5 marks. (4×5 = 20)

Question 26.
“Training is beneficial both for the Organisation as well as for the employees”. Explain any two benefits of training towards the Organisation and any two towards the employees.
Answer:
Benefits of training : Training is necessary activity all organisation. It plays a large part in determining the efficiency of the organisation. Some of the major benefits of training and development are enumerated below :
(a) Benefits to the organisation :

1. Increases productivity : It helps to improve employee’s knowledge and skills, which in turn increases the quality and quantity of production. Higher productivity means higher profitability for the organisation.
2. Reduced supervision : Training gives employees greater confidence. Trained employees need less supervision. They require freedom to handle their jobs without close supervsion. With reduced supervision, a manager can widen his span of control and spend greater time on more non-routine issues of the department. Properly trained employees are more self- reliant because they are more confident about what do and how to do it. The employees need not learn by trial and error method.

(b) Benefits to the Employees :

1. Acqueisition of new skills : A trained employees acquires new attitude and skills, which enhance his market value. The acquisition of new knowledge increase his prospects within and outside the organisation for higher jobs.
2. Higher Earnings: Trained employees can perform better and thereby earn more.
3. Safety: Trained employees are less prove to accidents as they handle the machines carefully.
4. Self-confidence : Training enables the employee to approach and performs his job with enthusiasm.
5. Promotion : Through training, employees can develop himself and earn quick promotion.
6. Adoptability : Trained employees adopt to changes in work procedures and methods easily.

Question 27.
Every manager has to take three major decisions while performing the final function. Explain.
Answer:
The three main financial decisions which are generally taken by a finance manager are as under:

1. Investment Decision : It refers to the selection of assets in which funds will be invested by the business. Assets which are obtained by the business are of two types, i.e. Long term assets and short-term assets. On this basis, investment decision is also divided into two parts :
   • Long-term Investment decision
   • Short-term Investment decision.
2. Financial Decision: It refers to the determination as to how the total funds required by the sources. Long-term financial sources chiefly include equity share capital, preference share capital, retained earnings, debentures Long-term Loan etc. For taking financial decision, an analysis of the cost and benefits of all the sources is made.
3. Dividend Decision : It refers to the determination of how much part of the earning should be distributed among shareholders by the way of dividend and how much should be retained for meeting future needs as retained earnings.

Question 28.
Explain briefly the factors determining the amount of fixed Capital.
Answer:
Factors affecting the requirement/need of fixed capital:-

1. Nature of Business It has been observed that trading concerns require less fixed capital in comparison to manufacturing enterprises. The reason is that manufacturing enterprises require more machines and tools , where as these may not be required by trading concerns.
2. Size of Business Size of business also determines the amount of fixed capital larger the size of the business, the heavier would be the requirement for fixed capital.
3. System of production Production can take place manually or mechanically. Mechanization requires more amount of fixed capital as compared to manual processes.
4. Owner ship of fixed capital If an enterprises wishes to have its own fixed assets, it will have to arrange a lot of money to buy them, on the other hand, if an enterprises, decline to have the fixed assets on hire, will not be required to arrange for heavy amount of fixed capital.
5. System of marketing An enterprises, doing direct marketing with out the intervention of whole sealers and retailers has to invest heavily on own retail outlets and on suitable supply of vehicles. Therefore, its need will be much more than those that depend on intermediaries for marketing purposes.
6. Range of production An enterprises producing all the parts of a product requires more amount of fixed capital than the one which produces vital parts and gets other parts produced from outside.

Question 29.
How functional structure differs from a divisional structure ?
Answer:
Function Structure :

1. Formation is based on functions.
2. Functional specialization.
3. Difficult to fix on a department
4. Difficult, as each functional manager has to report to the top management.
5. Functions are not duplicated hence economical.
6. Difficult for a multiproduct company.

Divisional structure :

1. Formation is based on product lines and is supported by functions.
2. Product specialization.
3. Easy to fix responsibility for performance.
4. Easier, autonomy as well as the change to perform multiple functions help in managerial development.
5. Duplication of resources in various departments hence costly.
6. Easy, because all functions related to a particular product are integrated in on department.

Question 30.
State the factors affecting the requirements of fixed capital.
Answer:
The factors affecting the requirements of fixed capital are as follows :

1. Nature of business : Some types of business need more capital and some less.Manufacturing industries need more fixed capital than trading concerns.
2. Size of business unit : Fixed capital or requirements depend on the size of business.If the size is big.it will need more fixed capital.For smaller organisation the need will be less.
3. Nature of goods manufactured : The amount of fixed capital also depends on articles to be manufactured. For manufacturing industrial goods or machines the need for capital will be more than the industries engaged in manufacture of consumer goods.
4. Amount of preliminary expenses : If the promoters have to spend more on preliminary expenses like commission on sale of shares or debentures or as underwriting commission etc.there will be more need of fixed capital.
5. Method of production and technology used : If the enterprise uses modern technology like fully automatic plant for production or uses imported , machinery ,the fixed capital needs will be high.
6. Mode of purchase of fixed assets : Fixed capital requirements will be more if fixed assets are purchased in cash and less if purchased on credit or on hire purchase or on installment payment system.

Question 31.
What is meant by ‘Monetary Incentives’ ? State any three types of monetary incentives which contribute to the performance of employees.
Answer:
Financial Motivation : Financial motivation are those which are accociated with money. They include wages and salaries, fringes benefits, bonus, retirement benefits, etc. However, such incentives may not always prove to be motivating. In many cases, management may have to increase the financial incentives to keep the workers with the organisation. This can be appreciated from the practice of making wages and salaires competitive between various enterprises so as to attract and maintain good work force.

Money is a real motivating factor when the physiological and security needs of the workers have not been fully satisfied. Money plays a significant role in satisfying these needs. Therefore, management can use financial incentives for motivation. Money also helps in satisfying the social needs of employees to some extent because money is often recognised as a symbol of status, respect and power.

Besides money is an important means of achieving a ‘minimum standard of living althought this ‘minimum’ has the tendency to go up as people become more affluent. But this should not lead one to conclude that money will always be a motivating factor to all people. To some people, importance of money may be reduced after a certain stage and non-financial rewards may become more important. They are motivated by money only up to the stage they are struggling for satisfying their physiological and security needs.

Money provides for the satisfaction of physiological and safety needs only, which have been called hygienic factors by Herzberg. Hygienic include wages and salaries and other fringe benefits. The presence of these factors at a satisfactory level prevents job dissatisfaction. They do not provide ‘on-the-job satisfaction’ to the employees and therefore, can not be considered as motivational factors. According to Herzberg, in order to motivate the employees, it is necessary to provide for the satisfaction of their ego, social and self-actualisation needs.

But these needs are present, generally, in employees in the higher positions, who get higher monetary rewards and are not motivated by increased monetary benefits. In case of employees at the operative levels, money certainly plays a significant role in motivating them because their survival and safety depends on it.

Following are included in financial incentives :

1. Salaries and wages
2. Bonus (out of firm’s Profit)
3. Premium (share in economics due to increase in production).

Question 32.
Which qualities of a good leader will you like to have as a Manager ?
Answer:
The qualities of good leader are as follows :

1. Physical features : Physical features like height, weight health, appearance determine the physical personality of an individual health and endurance help a leader to work hard which inspires others to work with same tempo.
2. Knowledge : A good leader should have required knowledge and competence. Only such person can instruct subordinates correctly and influence them.
3. Integrity : A leader should posses high level of integrity and honesty. He should be a role model to others regarding the ethics and values.
4. Initiative : A leader should have courage and initiative. He should not wait, for opportunities come to his way, rather he should grab the opportunity and use it to the advantage of organisation.
5. Communication skills : A leader should be a good communicator. He should have the capacity to clearly explain his ideas and make the people to understand his ideas.
6. Motivation skills : A leader should be an effective motivator. He should understand the needs of people and motivate them through satisfying their needs.
7. Self confidence : A leader should have high level of self confidence. He should not loose his confidence even in most difficult times.
8. Decisiveness : Leader should be decisive in managing the work. Once he is convinced about a fact, he should be firm and should not change opinions frequently.
9. Social skills : A leader should be sociable and friendly with his colleagues and followers. He should understand people and maintain good human relations with them.

Question 33.
What is planning ? Which steps are taken by management in the process of planning ?
Answer:
Meaning of Planning – Planning is the selection of the best course of action out of the available alternatives and deciding to achieve the objective through the best course so chosen.

Definition – According to Alfred and Beatty, “Planning is the thinking process, the organised foresight, the vision based on facts and experience that is required for intelligence action.”

Following steps are taken by management in planning :

1. Setting objectives – The first step in planning exercises is setting the objectives, providing the rationale for undertaking various activities as well as indicating the direction of efforts. Moreover, objectives point to the end-result of planning activity. The objectives provide guidelines for many vital decisions relating to resources allocation, schedule of work, nature of actions, etc.

2. Establishing the planning premises – Once goals have been set, the second step involves establishing the planning premises or assumptions. It consists of forecasting future conditions and events which are likely to have bearing on the pursuit of goals like market demand for goods, cost of raw materials, state of technology, intensity of competition, government policies,interest rates, tax rates, etc.

3. Identifying alternative courses of action – When the forecasts are available and premises are established, a number of alternative courses of action have to be considered.

4. Evaluating alternative course – Planning requires that each alternative should be evaluated taking into account the relevant facts and the pros and cons of each alternative. The merits and demerits as well as consequences of each alternative course of action must be examined before a choice is made.

5. Selecting an alternative – After evaluation of various available alternative courses, the time comes for selecting the best plan and to implement it practically. The plan will be justified best in terms of feasibility, profitability and with least adverse outcomes. Sometimes a firm may also go for combination of plans instead of selecting one best course.

6. Formulation of derivative plans – Having decided upon the course of action, it is necessary that detailed plans and programmers should be drawn up including specific plans for different type of activities.These are known as derivative plans.

7. Implement of plan/Securing co-operation – Planning is essentially goal-oriented. Hence,the plans formulated must be implemented effectively. For this purpose, co-operation of all the members of the organisation is required. Accordingly, plans must be of what is proposed to be done and why. Many a time useful suggestions and ideas are received when plans are communicated to the concerned workers. Employees are motivated to execute the plan to the best of their ability.

8. Follow up – As planning is a continuous process, existing plans are received at intervals to ensure their relevance and effectiveness. As the plans are implemented, certain facts often come to light which were not even thought of earlier.

Bihar Board 12th Maths Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 1 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Full Marks: 100

Instructions for the candidates :

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figure in the right-hand margin indicates full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as far as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections. Section-A and Section-B
6. In Section A, there are 1-50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with blue/black ball pen against the correct option on the OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/ Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet otherwise result will be invalid.
7. In section-B, there are 25 short answer type questions (each carrying 2 marks), out of which only 15 (fifteen) questions are to be answered.
   A part from this there is 08 Long Answer Type questions (each carrying 5 marks), out of which 4 questions are to be answered.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

There are 1 to 50 objective type questions with 4 options, choose the correct option which, is to be answered on OMR Sheet. (50 x 1 = 50)

Question 1.
Which of the following has its inverse function one-one and onto?
(a) one-one onto
(b) one-one into
(c) many one onto
(d) many on into
Answer:
(a) one-one onto

Question 2.
A relation R in a set X is an equivalence relation if R is
(a) reflexive
(b) symmetric
(c) transitive
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 3.
The number of all one-one functions from set {a, b, c, d} to itself is
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) None
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 4.
If \(-\frac{\pi}{2}<x<\frac{\pi}{2}\) then tan(tan^-1 x) =
(a) tan x
(b) cotx
(c) x
(d) -x
Answer:
(c) x

Question 5.
Sin^-1 x + Cos^-1 y =
(a) 0
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) π
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 6.
If x > 0, y > 0, xy < 1, then tan^-1x + tan^-1 y =
(a) tan^-1 (x+y)
(b) \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{x+y}{1-x y}\)
(c) tan^-1
(d) sin^-1(x + y)
Answer:
(b) \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{x+y}{1-x y}\)

Question 7.
(a) tan^-12x
(b) \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}} \)
(c) \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{2 x}{1+x^{2}}\)
(d) \(\cot ^{-1} \frac{2}{x}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}} \)

Question 8.
\(2\left[\begin{array}{ll}
x & y \\
1 & m
\end{array}\right]\) =

Answer:
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & 2 y \\
1 & 2 m
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 9.
\(5\left|\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right|=\)

Answer:
\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 3 \\
15 & 20
\end{array}\right|\)

Question 10.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
5 & -5 \\
5 & -5
\end{array}\right]\) then A’ =

Answer:
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
5 & 5 \\
-5 & -5
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 11.
\(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right|=\)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 12.
\(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
\mathbf{a} & \mathbf{b} \\
\mathbf{c} & \mathbf{d}
\end{array}\right]+\left[\begin{array}{ll}
\mathbf{p} & \mathbf{q} \\
\mathbf{r} & \mathbf{s}
\end{array}\right]=\)

Answer:
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a+p & b+q \\
c+r & d+s
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 13.
For a non-invertible matrix A,
(a) | A | = 0
(b)|A|≠ 0
(c) | A | = 1
(d) | A | = 2
Answer:
(b)|A|≠ 0

Question 14.
If 1 is an unit matrix of order 2 × 2 then I³ =
(a) 3I²
(b) 3 + I
(c) 3I
(d) I
Answer:
(d) I

Question 15.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
4 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) and \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 6 \\
8 & 10
\end{array}\right]\) then 2A – B =
(a) [0]
(b) [0,0]
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 0 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) [3]
Answer:
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 0 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 16.
If the order of two matrices A and B are 2×4 and 3×2 respectively then the order of AB is
(a) 2 x 2
(b) 4 x 3
(c) 2 x 3
(d) it is not possible to find AB
Answer:
(d) it is not possible to find AB

Question 17.
\(\frac{d}{d x}(\tan x)=\) =
(a) cot x
(b) Sec²x
(c) Secx tanx
(d) Secx
Answer:
(b) Sec²x

Question 18.
\(\frac{d}{d x}\left(\sin ^{3} x\right)=\)
(a) 3 cos³
(b) 3 sin²xcosx
(c) 3sin²x
(d) cos³x
Answer:
(b) 3 sin²xcosx

Question 19.
\(\frac{d}{d x}\) [3 (sin² x + cos²x )] =
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 6 sin x cos x
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 20.
\(\frac{d}{d x}\) (e^4x) =
(a) e^4x
(b) e^x
(c) \(\frac{e^{4 x}}{4}\)
(d) 4e^4x
Answer:
(d) 4e^4x

Question 21.
\(\frac{d}{d x}\left(x^{5}\right)=\)
(a) 5x⁵
(b) 5x⁴
(c) \(\frac{x^{6}}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{x^{4}}{4} \)
Answer:
(b) 5x⁴

Question 22.
\(\frac{d}{d x}\) [log(x³)] =
(a) \(\frac{1}{x^{3}}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{x}\)
(c) 3x
(d) \(\frac{3}{x^{3}}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{3}{x}\)

Question 23.
If x= cosθ,y = sinθ then \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) =
(a) tanθ
(b) sec²θ
(c) cotθ
(d) – cotθ
Answer:
(d) – cotθ

Question 24.
\(\frac{d}{d x}\left(x^{1 / 3}\right)=\)

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{3} x^{2 / 3}\)

Question 25.
∫ sin 2x dx =
(a) K + 2 cos2x
(b) \(\frac{\cos 2 x}{2}+K\)
(c) \(K-\frac{\cos 2 x}{2}\)
(d) \(K-\frac{\cos 2 x}{3}\)
Answer:
(c) \(K-\frac{\cos 2 x}{2}\)

Question 26.
∫x⁴dx =
(a) K + x⁵
(b) \(K+\frac{x^{4}}{5}\)
(c) \(K+\frac{x^{5}}{5}\)
(d) \(K+\frac{x^{5}}{4}\)
Answer:
(c) \(K+\frac{x^{5}}{5}\)

Question 27.
∫e^3x dx =
(a) e^3x + K
(b) K + 3e^3x
(c) \(\frac{e^{3 x}}{3}+K\)
(d) \(\frac{e^{3 x}}{4}+K\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{e^{3 x}}{3}+K\)

Question 28.
\(\int \frac{3}{x} d x=\)
(a) K + 3x²
(b) \(K-\frac{3}{x^{2}}\)
(c) 3x + K
(d) K + 3 log|x|
Answer:
(d) K + 3 log|x|

Question 29.
∫3dx =
(a) 3 + K
(b) x + K
(c) 3x + K
(d) 3K
Answer:
(c) 3x + K

Question 30.
∫√x.dx =

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{2}{3} x^{3 / 2}+K\)

Question 31.
\(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \sin x d x=\)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 32.
\(\int_{0}^{1} e^{x} d x=\)
(a) e
(b) e + 1
(c) e – 1
(d) 2e
Answer:
(c) e – 1

Question 33.
The solution of the equation \(\frac{d x}{x}=\frac{d y}{y}\) is
(a) x = Ky
(b) xy = K
(c) x + y = K
(d) x – y = K
Answer:
(a) x = Ky

Question 34.
The solution of the differential equation cosx dx + cosy dy = 0 is
(a) sinx + cosy = K
(b) sinx + siny = K
(c) cosx + cosy = K
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) sinx + siny = K

Question 35.
The solution of e^xdx + e^ydy = 0
(a) e^x + e^y= K
(b) e^x – e^y = K
(c) e^x+y = K
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) e^x + e^y= K

Question 36.
The integrating factor of the linear differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}+x y=x^{3}\) is
(a) e^x
(b) \(e^{\frac{x^{2}}{2}}\)
(c) x
(d) None of these
Answre:
(b) \(e^{\frac{x^{2}}{2}}\)

Question 37.
∫ logdx =
(a) x log x – x + K
(b) x log x + x + K
(c) \(\frac{1}{x}+K\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}(\log x)^{2}+K\)
Answer:
(a) x log x – x + K

Question 38.
\(\int \frac{d x}{1+x^{2}}=\)
(a) tan^-1 x + K
(b) sin^-1 x + K
(c) cos^-1 x + K
(d) cot^-1 x + K
Answer:
(a) tan^-1 x + K

Question 39.
\(\overrightarrow{| \vec{i}} |=\)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 40.
\(\vec{i} \cdot \vec{i}=\)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) \(\vec{j}\)
(d) \(\vec{k}\)
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 41.
\(\vec{i} \times \vec{i}=\)
(a) \(\vec{i}\)
(b) \(\vec{0}\)
(c) \(\vec{j}\)
(d) \(\vec{k}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\vec{0}\)

Question 42.
If O is the origin and the position vector of a point(2,3,4) then \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}=\)

Answer:
(b) \(2 \vec{i}+3 \vec{j}+3 \vec{k}\)

Question 43.
\(\overrightarrow{| i}+2 \vec{j}+3 \vec{K} |=\)
(a) 14
(b) 6
(c) 1
(d) √14
Answer:
(d) √14

Question 44.
\((2 \vec{i}-3 \vec{j}+4 \vec{k}) \cdot(3 \vec{i}+4 \vec{j}-5 \vec{k})=\)
(a) 14
(b) -14
(c) 26
(d) -26
Answer:
(d) -26

Question 45.
The direction cosines of the y-axis are
(a) 0, 0, 0
(b) 1, 0, 0
(c) 0, 1, 0
(d) 0, 0, 1
Answer:
(c) 0, 1, 0

Question 46.
The condition for two lines having direction cosines I₁ m₁,n₁ and I₂, m₂, n₂ being parallel is
(a) l₁l₂ + m₁m₂ + n₁n₂ = 0
(b) \(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}+\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}+\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}=0\)
(c) \(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}=\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}=\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\)

Question 47.
The equation of a plane parallel to the plane x + 2y + 3z + 5 = 0 is
(a) x + 2y + 3z + 5 = 0
(b) x – 2y + 3z + 5 = 0
(c) x + 2y – 3z + 5 = 0
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 48.
The equation of a plane parallel to yz-plane is
(a) x + K
(b) y = K
(c) z = K
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) x + K

Question 49.
If A and B be two arbitrary events where A ≠ φ then P (A∩B) =
(a) P (A). P (B/A)
(b) P (A) + P (B/A)
(c) P (A) – P (B/A)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) P (A). P (B/A)

Question 50.
The function in a linear programming problem whose maximum or minimum value has to be determined is called
(a) Objective function
(b) Constraint
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Objective function

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 25 are short answer type questions. Each question of this category carries 2 marks. Answer any 15 questions. (15 x 2 = 30)

Question 1.
Examine whether the function f: R → R is one-one or many-one where f (x) = | x |, x ∈ R
Answer:
We have f(-1) = |- 1| = 1 and f(-1) = | 1 | = 1
Thus two different elements in R have the same Image,
∴ f is not one-one function, f is many one function.

Question 2.
Prove that 2 \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{5}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{4}=\tan ^{-1} \frac{32}{43}\)
Answer:

Question 3.
Solve for x : cot^-1 x + sin ^-1\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\) = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:

Question 4.
Find the value of x from the following
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 x-y & 5 \\
3 & y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
6 & 5 \\
3 & -2
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Given that \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 x-y & 5 \\
3 & y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
6 & 5 \\
3 & -2
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ 2x – y = 6 ………..(1)
y = -2………..(2)
from (i) 2x + 2 = 6 ⇒ 2x = 4. ∴ x = 2
∴x = 2, y = 2

Question 5.
Evaluate:
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
16 & 9 & 7 \\
23 & 16 & 7 \\
32 & 19 & 13
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:

Question 6.
When Evaluate x : \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x & 4 \\
2 & 2 x
\end{array}\right|=0\)
Answer:
Given that \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x & 4 \\
2 & 2 x
\end{array}\right|=0\)
⇒ 2x² – 8 = 0
⇒ 2x² = 8
⇒ x² = 4
∴ x = ±2

Question 7.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{c}
2 \\
-4 \\
3
\end{array}\right]\) and B = [ 2 3 4] then find B’A’
Answer:

Question 8.
If y + x = sin (y +x) then find dy/dx
Answer:

Question 9.
If \(y=\log \left(x^{2} \sqrt{x^{2}+1}\right)\) then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
Answer:

Question 10.
If x = a cosθ, y = b sinθ, then find dy/dx
Answer:
Given that x = acosθ
D.W.R. to θ \(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = -asinθ…(i)
and y = bsinθ
D.w.r. to θ ; \(\frac{d y}{d \theta}\) = bcosθ …(ii)
\(\frac{(\mathrm{ii})}{(\mathrm{i})} \frac{d y}{d x}=-\frac{b}{a} \cot \theta\)

Question 11.
Integrate ∫ (sin x +cos x)²dx.
Answer:
Let I = ∫ (sin x + cos x)² dx
= ∫ (sin²x + cos²x + 2sinx-cosx)dlv
= ∫ (l + sin 2x)clx = ∫ dx + ∫ sin 2x dx
= \(x-\frac{\cos 2 x}{2}+c\)

Question 12.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \frac{d x}{1+\sin x}\)
Answer:

Question 13.
Evaluate : \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \frac{\sin x d x}{\sin x+\cos x}\)
Answer:

Question 14.
Solve \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y tanx =-ysec²x.
Answer:
Given differentia] Equation is \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y tanx =-ysec²x.
This is L.D.E. of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q
Here p = – tan x Q = sec²x

∴ Solution of given diff. eqn. is
y x l.F.= ∫ Q-(lF)dx + C
⇒ ycosx = ∫sec²x.cosxdx + C
⇒ ycosx = ∫ secxdx + C
⇒ ycosx = log |secx + tanx| + C
This is requried solution of given diff. eqn.

Question 15.
Integrate : ∫x²e^xdx
Answer:
Let I = ∫x²e^xdx

Question 16.
Find the scalar product of \(\overrightarrow{5} \vec{i}+\vec{j}-3 \vec{k}\) and \(3 \vec{i}-\overrightarrow{4 j}+7 \vec{K}\)
Answer:
Let \(\vec{a}=5 \hat{l}+\hat{j}-3 \hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=3 \hat{\imath}-4 \hat{j}-7 \hat{k}\)
∴ \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}\) = (5 x 3) + (1 x -4)÷(- 3 x 7)
15 – 4 – 21 = – 10

Question 17.
If \(\vec{a}=3 \vec{i}+4 \vec{j}-5 \vec{k}\) and b = \(7 \vec{i}-3 \vec{j}+6 \vec{K}\) then find \((\vec{a}+\vec{b}) \times(\vec{a}-\vec{b})\)
Answer:

Question 18.
Find the acute angle between two straight lines whose direction ratios are (1,1,0) and (2,1,2).
Answer:
Direction ratios of the first line are 1,1,0
∴Its direction cosines are

Direction ratios of the second line are 2,1,2
its direction cosines are

Question 19.
Find the values of p so that the lines \(\frac{11-x}{p}=\frac{3 y-3}{2}=\frac{17-z}{5}\) and
\(\frac{x-22}{3 p}=\frac{2 y-7}{27 p}=\frac{z-100}{6 / 5}\) are perpendicular to each other.
Answer:


⇒ -3p² + 9p – 6 = 0
⇒ 3p² – 9p + 6 = 0
⇒ p² – 3p + 2 = 0
⇒ p² – 2p – p + 2 = 0
⇒ p(p – 2) -1 (p – 2) =0
⇒ (p – 2) (p – 1) = 0
∴ p = 2, 1

Question 20.
Prove that the two planes, 3x – 4y + 5z = 0 and 2x – y – 2z = 5 are mutually perpendicular.
Answer:
Given equations of plane are 3x – 4y + 5z = 0 …(i)
and 2x-y-2z = 5 …(ii)
Here a₁= 3 b₁= – 4, c₁ = 5; a₂ = 2, b₂ = -1 c₂=- 2
a₁a₂ + b₁b₂ + c₁c₂; 6 + 4 – 10 = 0
Since product of Direction’ratios at two planes are zero, plane (i) & (ii) are perpendicular.

Question 21.
What is the probability of occurrence of a number greater than 2 if it is known that only even num¬bers can occur ?
Answer:
Let S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}; A = {2,4,6}
B= {3, 4, 5,6}

Question 22.
A person tosses a coin 3 times. Find the probability of occurrence of exactly one head.
Answer:
Let p = Probability of getting a head in one trial

Question 23.
If y = sin x + cosx, then find \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\)
Answre:
Given that y = sinx + cosx; D.w.r. to x both sides
∴ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cps x – sin x, Again D.w.r.to x both sides
⇒ \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = – sin x – cosx (sinx + cosx)

Question 24.
Find the values of \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a & a^{2} & a^{3} \\
b & b^{2} & b^{3} \\
c & c^{2} & c^{3}
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:

Question 25.
If A and B be two events and 2P (A) = P (B) = 6/13 and P (A/B) = 1/3, then find (P(A ∪ B)
Answer:

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Answer any 4 questions out of these. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 26.
If y = \(e^{x^{x}}\) then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
Answer:

Question 27.
Prove that sinθ (1 + cosθ)has maximum value at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
Answer:
Let y = sinθ(1 + cosθ)
D .w.r. to 0 both sides

Question 28.
Evaluate : \(\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x}{1+\sin x} d x\)
Answer:

Question 29.
Solve: (x² + y2)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2xy
Answer:
Given differential equ. is (x² + y2)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2xy

This is Homogeneons diff. equation put y = vx

Question 30.
Maximize : Z = 50x + 15y
subject to : 5A + y ≤ 5, x + y ≤ 3 and x, y ≥ 0
Answer:
Its corresponding equation
5x + y = 5 …… (i)
x + y = 3 ……..(ii)

Question 31.
A speaks the truth in 75% casses and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact ?
Answer:
Let E = The Event of A speaking the truth and F = The Event of B speaking the truth.
Then P(E) = \(\frac{75}{100}=\frac{3}{4}\) and P(F) = \(\frac{80}{100}=\frac{4}{5}\)
Required probability P(A & B contradicting each other)
= P(EF̄) or ĒF) = P(EF̄+ĒF)= P(E)- P(F̄) + P(Ē).P(F)
= P(E) .[1 – P(F)]+[1 – P(E). P(F)]
∴ A &.B are likely to contradict each other in 35% cases.

Question 32.
Find the acute angle between the straight line \(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y}{3}=\frac{z}{0}\) and plane 2x + y = 5
Answer:
Given that \(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y}{3}=\frac{z}{0}\) and 2x + y = 5
Here a₁, b₁, c₁ & a₂ = 2, b₂= 1, c₂ = 0
∴ Acute angle between the given line and plane is

Question 33.
Factorize. \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
(b+c)^{2} & a^{2} & a^{2} \\
b^{2} & (c+a)^{2} & b^{2} \\
c^{2} & c^{2} & (a+b)^{2}
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:

Bihar Board 12th Economics Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Economics Model Question Paper 1 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hour 15 Min
Full Marks : 100

Instructions

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
4. This question paper has two sections : Section-A and Section-B.
5. In Section-A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you Do. not use Whitener/Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section-B, there are Non-objective type questions. There are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart froms this, there are 08 Long answer type questions, out-of which any 04 of them are to be answered. Each questions carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Questions no. 1 to 50 have four options provided out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each question carries 1 (one) marks.

Question 1.
Production Possibility curve is :
(a) Concave to the axis
(b) Convex to the axis
(c) Parallel to the axis
(d) Vertical to the axis
Answer:
(a) Concave to the axis

Question 2.
Which one is the limitation of Macro Economics ?
(a) Collective Economic
(b) Paradox
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both A and B

Question 3.
How we calculate marginal utility ?
(a) \(\frac { ΔMU }{ ΔQ }\)
(b) \(\frac { ΔTU }{ ΔQ }\)
(c) \(\frac { ΔQ }{ ΔTU }\)
(d) \(\frac { ΔQ }{ ΔMU }\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac { ΔTU }{ ΔQ }\)

Question 4.
Who propounded the ordial utility theory ?
(a) Marshall
(b) Pigou
(c) Recardo
(d) Hicks & Allen
Answer:
(d) Hicks & Allen

Question 5.
The quantity of goods which the seller is ready to sell in a market at fixed price and time is called.
(a) Supply
(b) Demand
(c) Elasticity of supply
(d) Elasticity of Demand
Answer:
(a) Supply

Question 6.
Which is a reason of change in demand ?
(a) Change of consumer’s income
(b) Change in price of related goods
(c) Population Increase
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 7.
For Giffin goods, price elasticity of demand is :
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Positive

Question 8.
Production function is expressed as :
(a) QX = PX
(b) QX = DX
(c) QX = f (A,B,C,D)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) QX = f (A,B,C,D)

Question 9.
Which of the following is not fixed cost ?
(a) Cost of raw materials
(b) Rent of the factory
(c) Interest
(d) Insurance Premium
Answer:
(a) Cost of raw materials

Question 10.
Which of the following is true ?
(a) TVC = TC – TFC
(b) TC = TVC – TFC
(c) TFC = TVC – TC
(d) TC = TVC × TFC
Answer:
(a) TVC = TC – TFC

Question 11.
In which market MR may become zero or negative ?
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Both A and B
(d) Perfect competition
Answer:
(c) Both A and B

Question 12.
In perfect competition :
(a) AR = MR
(b) AR > MR
(c) AR < MR
(d) AR + AC = MR
Answer:
(a) AR = MR

Question 13.
The basic condition of a firm’s equillibrium is :
(a) MR = AR
(b) MC > MR
(c) MR < TR
(d) AC = AR
Answer:
(b) MC > MR

Question 14.
If the price of goods rises by 20% and supply increases by 40%, then the supply of such goods will be :
(a) Elastic
(b) Inelastic
(c) Highly Elastic
(d) Perfectly Elastic
Answer:
(d) Perfectly Elastic

Question 15.
Which one of the following is true for monopoly.
(a) Firm is price-maker
(b) Demand curve slops downward
(c) Price discrimination Possibility arises
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 16.
Who gave the concept of ‘Time Element’ in price determination process ?
(a) Ricardo
(b) Walras
(c) Marshall
(d) J.K. Mehta
Answer:
(c) Marshall

Question 17.
Which is the component of factor price determination ?
(a) Rent
(b) Wages
(c) Interest
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 18.
The elasticity of a straight line supply curve originating from the centre of origin is
(a) Less than unit
(b) Greater than unit
(c) Equal to unit
(d) Equal to Zero
Answer:
(c) Equal to unit

Question 19.
The alternative name of opportunity cost is :
(a) Equilibrium Price
(b) Economic Cost
(c) Marginal Cost
(d) Average Cost
Answer:
(b) Economic Cost

Question 20.
What happens when production is shut down ?
(a) Variable costs become zero
(b) Fixed costs increases
(c) Variable costs decline
(d) Fixed costs become zero
Answer:
(a) Variable costs become zero

Question 21.
A curve which rises first and starts declining after that is called :
(a) APP
(b) MPP
(c) TPP
(d) All these
Answer:
(d) All these

Question 22.
An active factor of production is :
(a) Capital
(b) Labour
(c) Land
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Land

Question 23.
Which of the following is the main reason of operating the Law of Dimishing Returns ?
(a) Scarcity of factors
(b) Imperfect Substitution between Factors
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both A and B

Question 24.
Average variable costs is :
(a) TVC × Q
(b) TVC + Q
(c) TVC – Q
(d) TVC ÷ Q
Answer:
(d) TVC ÷ Q

Question 25.
“Supply creates its own demand”. Who propounded this law ?
(a) J.B. Say
(b) J.S. Mill
(c) Keynes
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(a) J.B. Say

Question 26.
With increase in investment, MEC :
(a) Rises
(b) Falls
(c) Remains Constant
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Falls

Question 27.
Increase in aggregate demand of equilibrium level of income and employment causes increase in :
(a) Employment
(b) Production
(c) Income
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 28.
Which one is correct ?
(a) A.K = \(\frac { 1 }{ MPc }\)
(b) B.K = \(\frac { 1 }{ MPc }\)
(c) C.K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1-MPc }\)
(d) D.K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1+MPs }\)
Answer:
(b) B.K = \(\frac { 1 }{ MPc }\)

Question 30.
Which of the following is included in secondary sectors ?
(a) Insurance
(b) banking
(c) Trade
(d) Investment
Answer:
(d) Investment

Question 31.
Net national income at Factor cost is called :
(a) National Income
(b) Gross Investment
(c) Domestic Income
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) National Income

Question 32.
The market value of all final goods and services produced in an economy over a year is called :
(a) Gross National Product
(b) National Income
(c) Gross Domestic Product
(d) Net National Product
Answer:
(c) Gross Domestic Product

Question 33.
Which service is included in Tertiary Sector ?
(a) Mining
(b) Communication
(c) Construction
(d) Animal Husbandry
Answer:
(b) Communication

Question 34.
GNPMP = ?
(a) GNP_MP – Depreciation
(b) GNP_MP + Net Factor Income from abroad
(c) GNP + Subsidy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) GNPMP + Net Factor Income from abroad

Question 35.
Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Disposable Income = Personal Income – Direct Taxes
(b) Disposable Income = Private Income – Direct Taxes
(c) Disposal Income = Personal Income – Indirect Taxes.
(d) Disposal Income = Private Income – Indirect Tases
Answer:
(a) Disposable Income = Personal Income – Direct Taxes

Question 36.
Which Objectives government attempts to obtain by Budget ?
(a) To Promote Economic Development
(b) Balanced Regional Development
(c) Redistribution of Income and Wealth
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 37.
Which of the following Budget is suitable for Developing Economy ?
(a) balanced Budget
(b) Surplus Budget
(c) Deficit Budget
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Deficit Budget

Question 38.
Foreign exchange is determined by :
(a) Government
(b) Bargaining
(c) World Bank
(d) Demand and supply forces
Answer:
(d) Demand and supply forces

Question 39.
“Budget is a preliminary approval Plan of Public revenue and expenditure”. Who said?
(a) Rane stourn
(b) Findlay Shirras
(c) Taylor
(d) Dalton
Answer:
(d) Dalton

Question 40.
“Money is what mobey does” who said it ?
(a) Hartley Withers
(b) Hawtrey
(c) Prof Thomas
(d) Keynes
Answer:
(a) Hartley Withers

Question 41.
The function of money is
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Measure of value
(c) Store of value
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 42.
What is Central Bank of India ?
(a) Central Bank
(b) Commercial Bank
(c) Private Bank
(d) Co-operative Bank
Answer:
(b) Commercial Bank

Question 43.
Who regulates money supply ?
(a) Govt, of India
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Reserve Bank
(d) Commmercial Bank
Answer:
(b) Planning Commission

Question 44.
Who is the Banker’s of the Bank ?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Unit Trust of India
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 45.
In which year Banking Ombudsman Scheme was announced ?
(a) 1990
(b) 1955
(c) 1977
(d) 1988
Answer:
(b) 1955

Question 46.
Which type of currency is issued by the central Bank ?
(a) Currency
(b) Credit Money
(c) Coins
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Currency

Question 47.
Which items are included in Balance of Payments?
(a) Visible items
(b) Invisible items
(c) Capital Transfer
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 48.
Balance ot Trade means
(a) Capital Transaction
(b) Import Export of goods
(c) Total Debit and Credit
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Import Export of goods

Question 49.
The meaningt of Spot Market relates to foreign exchange is ?
(a) Current Transactions
(b) Transactions of mid-period
(c) Transactions of Long Term
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Current Transactions

Question 50.
The Hybrid systems of exchange rate related to
(a) Wider Bands
(b) Crawing peg
(c) Managed Floating
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question no. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 them in 50 words. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 x 2 = 30)

Question 1.
What do you understand by Micro Economics ?
Answer:
Small units of an economy are included in micro economics e.g. one consumer, one producer, one firm, one industry etc. In other words, individual units are studied in micro economics.

According to K.E. Boulding, “Micro economics may be defind as that branch of analysis, which studies the economics behaviour of the individual unit, may be a person, a particular house-hold or a particular firm. It is a study of one particular unit rather than all the units combined together,”

Question 2.
Write two main components of Macro Economics ?
Answer:
The term Macro in English shas its origin in the Greek term Macros which means large. In the context of macro economics “large” means economy as a whole. Thus, macro economic is defined as that branch of economics which studies economic activies at the level of an economy as a whole.

According to M.S. Spencer, “Macro-economics is concerned with the economy as a whole or large segments of it. In Macroeconomics, attention is focused on such problems as the level of unemployment, the rate of inflation, the nation’s total output and other maters, of economy-wide significance.”

Question 3.
Distinguish between utility and total utility. Ans. Demand schedulers that schedule which, other things, remaining constant, expresses the relation between different quantities of the commodity demanded at different prices. The table relating to price and quantity demanded is called the demand schedule.
Demand schedule is of two types :

• Individual demand schedule
• Market demand schedule.

1. A more and more units of a commodity are consumed the marginal utility derived from each successive unit goes on diminishing. But the total utility increases up a limit.
2. Marginal utility of the first four units, being positive the total utility goes on increasing thus, as long as the marginal utility of the commodity remains positive, total utility goes on increasing.
3. Marginal utility of the sixth unit is negative (-2). As a result of it, total utility of six units of the commodity falls from 20 to to 1 units.
   Thus,
   1. When MU diminishes, TU tends to increase at a diminishing rate
   2. When MU is zero, Tu is maximum
   3. When MU is negative, TU starts diminishing.

Question 4.
What is indifference curve ?
Ans. Indifference curve explains the consumer’s behaviour related with the combination of two goods and this consumer’s behaviour is explained with the help of “Indifference schedule or Indifference set.” various combinations of two goods giving equal satisfactions to the consumer become the component of ‘Indifference schedule’, When indifference schedule is represented on a graph paper, we get indifference curve.

In the words of watson “An indifference schedule is the lists of combination of two commodities, the list being so arrange that a consumer is indifferent to the combinations preferring more of any other”.

Question 5.
What are the exceptions of law of Demand ?
Answer:
There are following to the Law of Demand.

1. Expected rise in future price
2. Prestigious Goods
3. Ignorance of consumer
4. Giffin’s Paradox,

Question 6.
Explain any two factors that affect price elasticity.
Answer:
Factors affecting elasticity of demand are discussed below.

1. Substitutes : When substitute of any goods is available, then deamnd elasticity of such goods is highly elastic because when price of these goods increases, subsutities are used in place of it. In the same way on decrease in price of these goods, use of substitutes decrease. Tea, coffee, gas, sugar etc. are examples of subsitutes.
2. Alternative uses : When goods could be used in only one way, its demand will be elastsic and when it would be used in many ways, its demand will be elastic eg. coal has so many used-it can be used industries houses ralways etc. Demand of coal for railways in elastic but for house purpose, its cheeper alternative goods like wood cooking gas etc. could be used in place of it.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Production Function ?
Answer:
A Production expresses the technical relationship between input and output of a firm. It tells us about the maximum quantity of output that can be produced with any given quantities of inputs. If there are two factor inputs, labour (L) and capital (K), then production function can be written as :
Q = f (L, K) where
Q = Quantity of output
L = Units of labour
K = Units of capital
It may be pointed here that both the inputs are necessary for the production. If any of the inputs is zero, there will be no production with both inputs and output will also be zero, As we increase the amount of any one input, output increases.

Question 8.
What is difference between Explicit Cost and Implicit Cost ?
Answer:
Explicit cost: Explicit costs refer to the actual money outlay of the firm to buy or wire the productive resources, it needs in the process of proudction.
Implicit Costs : Implicit costs are payments which are not directly or actually paid out by the firm as no contractual disbursement is fixed for them. It includes the prices of such services and factors which are used in production process but are not directly paid.

Question 9.
Why does a firm attain maximum Profit When MR = MC ?
Answer:
MC stands for marginal cost incurred by a firm when its production raises by one unit. If the marginal cost is smaller than the marginal revenue (MR), then it is profitable for the firm to produce on extra Unit of output.

Question 10.
What are the different types of supply elastiicity ?
Answer:
Following are the types of elasticity supply.

1. Perfectly Elastic Supply (e_V = ∞)
2. Greater than unitary Elastic supply (e_s> 1)
3. Unitary Elastic Supply (e_s = 1)
4. Inelastic Supply (e_s < 1)
5. Perfectly Inelastic supply (e_s = 0)

Question 11.
Write three main features of monopoly market.
Answer:
Features of monopoly are as under-

1. One seller and large number of buyers : Under monopoly, there should be a single producer of a commodity. He may be alone or there may be a group of partner or a joint stock company. Thus, there is only one firm under monopoly. But the buyers of the product are in large number.
2. Restrictions on the entry of the new firms : Under monopoly, there are some estrictions on the entry of new firms into monopoly industry.
3. No close substitutes : A monopoly firm produces, a community that has close substitutes.
4. Full control over price : A monopolist has full control over its price. A monopolist thus, is a price maker. He can fix whatever price he wishes to fix for his product.
5. Possibility of price discrimination : A
   monopolist charges different prices from different consumers. It is called price descrimination. It refers to the practice by a seller of charging different prices from different buyers for the same good.

Question 12.
Explain the Circular Flow of Income.
Answer:
Production gives birth to income, income to consumption, consumption to ependiture and again expenditure to income and production. Thus, circular flow of income earning economic activities takes place in the economy.
According to hipster, “The circular flow of income is the flow of payment and receipt between domestic firms and domestic households.”

Hence, the circular flow of income refers to flow of money income or the flow of goods an services across different sectors of the economy in a circular form.

Question 13.
What are the uses of National Income Accounting ?
Answer:
The information collected through nation income accounting can be used for a variety of purposes, such as assessing the current standard of living or the distribution of income within a population. Additionally, national income accounting provides a method for comparing activities within different sectors in an economy, as well an changes within those sectors over time. A thorough anlysis can assist in determining overall economic stability within a nation.

Question 14.
What is the relationship between Gross Domestic Product and Gross national Product.
Answer:
Distinction between GDP and GNP :

Question 16.
What is the difference between Standard money and Token Money ?
Answer:
The Indian rupee is a mixture of the standard money and the token money. Like standard money. It is unlimited legal tender, and like the token money, its face value is greater than its intrinsic value.

Question 17.
State the qualiity of good money.
Answer:
Following are the qualities of good money :

1. Utility : The metal with which coin is made, must bear the feature of utility. The metal must easily be accepted. Gold and silver are such metals which possess utility.
2. Port ability : The metal with which coin is made, can easily be tranferred from one place to antother. Gold and silver coins bear this feature also.
3. Durable : Money is saved by people and hence coin should be made of such metal which is durable from saving purpose.
4. Divisibility : Money metal should be divisible without my loss in its value. Gold and silver are such metals having the feature of divisibility.
5. Homogeneity : All units, of money should be homogeneous.
6. Economy : Minting cost’of coin should be minimum and the depreciation in the coin should be least.
7. Stability of Value : Money metal should be stable in value i.e. price fluctuation in the metal of coin should be minimum.
8. Liquidity : Money metal should be liquid in nature, metal should easily be converted into coins can again be converted into meta on easily.
9. Cognisibility : Metal should easily be indentified. Take coins on easily be traced out if metal of money is cognisible. Gold and silver are such metals having full cognisibility.

Question 18.
What is difference between cash credit and overdraft ?
Answer:
At the simplest level, overdraft and cash credit are just forms of borrowing. The institution allows you to withdrew funds that you do not have, usually in small amounts. The primary differences between these forms of borrowing is how they are secured and whether the money is lent out of a separate account.

Question 19.
State the types of Government Budget.
Answer:
Following are the types of Budget.

1. Balanced Budget.
2. Deficit Budget.
3. Surplus Budget.

Question 20.
Mention any two participants of the Foreign Exchange Market.
Answer:
Following are the two participants of foreign exchange market.

1. Central Banks.
2. Foreign Exchange Brokers.

Question 21.
What is unfavorable Balance of Payment.
Answer:
Unequal flow of money under an unfavorable balance of payments will reduce the country’s money supply and increase the exchange rate to currencies in other countries, causing issues with inflation, unemployment and production. Also called balance of payments deficit.

Question 22.
Explain the relationship between investment Multiplier and Marginal Propensity to consume.
Answer:
The Multiplier Effect. The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is equal to AC/AY, where AC is change in consumption, and AY is change in income. If consumption increases by eighty cents for each additional dollar of income, them MPC is equal to 0.8/1 = 0.8.

Question 23.
When does demand become Inelastic ?
Answer:
Demand becomes inelastic when people by about the same amount whether the price drops or rises. That happens with things people must have, like gasoline. Drivers must purchase the same amount even when the price increases. Like wise, they don’t buy much more even if the price drops.

Question 24.
Explain two features of oligopoly ?
Answer:
Important features of oligopalistic market are :

1. Few sellers
2. Interdependence among sellers regarding policies about price and output determination.

Question 25.
What is meant by Revenue Deficit ?
Answer:
Revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. Revenue receipts include both tax revenue and non-tax revenue. Similarly revenue expenditures also include both plan and non-plan expenditures on revenue account. Revenue dificit does not include items of capital receipts and capital expenditure.
[Revenue Deficit] = [Revenue Expenditur] – [Revenue Receipts]

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are Long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them in 100 words. Each question carries 5 marks. (5×4 = 20)

Question 26.
Explain the law of Demand. What are its assumptions ?
Answer:
Law of demand-Low of demand explains quantitative relation behueen price of goods and quantity demanded. Every consumer has a psychology to buy less amount or quantity of anything of high price and more quantity of low price, ceteris Paribus (others being equal), there is inrerse relationship between price of a goods and when price is low, demand is high.

Thus, P ∞\(\frac { 1 }{ Q }\) where, P = Price of commodity, Q = Quantity demanded
Assumptions of the law of demand-Law of demand is based on few assumptions. These assumptions are-

1. Consumer’s income should remain contant.
2. Consumer’s taste, nature, etc. should remain constant
3. Price of related goods should remain constant
4. Consumer remains unknown with new substitutes
5. There is no possibility of price change in future.

Question 27.
Explain the factors determining elasticity of demand.
Answer:
Factors affecting Elasticity of Demand :

1. Substitutes : When substitutes of any goods is available, then demand elasticity of such goods is highly elastic, because when price of these goods increases, substitutes are used in pace of it. In the same way, on decrease in price of these goods, use of substitutes decreases. Tea, coffee, sugar, etc. are examples of substitutes.
2. Alternative Uses : When goods could be used in only one way, its demand will be inelastic and when it would be used in many ways, its demand will be elastic. For example, coal has many uses-it can be used in railways, houses, industries, etc. Demand of coal for railway is inelastic but for house purpose, its demand is elastic as many cheaper alternative goods like wood, cooking gas etc. could be used in place of it.
3. Postponement of Consumption : If consumption of any goods can be postponed, its demand becomes elastic, e.g., a person has to woolen clothes. If due to some reason, price of woolens clothes increases, then consumer postpones the idea of buying another sweater in current year. In such a case, demand of woolen clothes for current year will be highly elastic.
4. Expenditure Amount: Goods on which large part of income is spent, are highly demand elastic and those goods on which small part of income is spent, their demand is generally inelastic. That is why, demand of television, radio, cycle, scooter, etc. is more elastic as compared to salt, wheat etc.
5. Income Level : Elasticity of demand for rich people is generally inelastic because increase in price level does not affect them severly while elasticity of demand for poor people is highly elastic because increase in prices affect their purchasing power a lot.

Question 28.
Explain the law of variabie proportion.
Answer:
According to Mrs. Joan Robinson, s”The law of diminishing returns, as it is usually, formulated states that with a fixed amount of any one factor of production, successive increase in the amount of others will after a point, yield a diminishing increment of output.”
Assumptions of the Law :

1. One factor of production is variable and others are fixed
2. All units of variable factor are homogeneous
3. There is no change in level of technique
4. Fixed factors are indivisible
5. Different factors of production are imperfect substitutes
6. Fixed factors are limited and scarce.

Explaination of the Law or Three Stages of Production : Three stages of variable porportion have been depicted in the table :

Above table explains all the three stages of variable proportion :

(i) Stage of Increasing Returns : In the first stage, as the units of variable factor are increased with fixed factor, increased production takes place because as we increase units of variable factor, optimum utilisation of fixed factor becomes possible. Thereby, total production, average production and marginal production all increase in the beginning of stage of production.

There are two parts of the first stage. In the first part, MP and AP both increase. At third unit of variable factor, Mp is maximum. At fourth unit, MP decreases but AP continues to increase. In the beginning, both AP and MP increase but in second part of the stage, AP increases, although MP continues to decrease. The mid-point between first and second stage of production is called ‘Point of Inflexion’. First stage ends at the point where AP is maximum. In the first stage, AP in increasing continuously from starting till end. That is why, this stage is also called stage of
increasiong Average Return or Increasing Return Stage.

(ii) Stage of Diminishing Returns : In the second stage, AP and MP both are decreasing. This stage ends at the point, where MP becomes zero. In this stage, TP increases at a decreasing rate because MP is decreasing but remains positive.
In this stage, AP continues to decline and so, this stage is also called ‘Stage of Decreasing Average Product’.

(iii) Stage of Negative Returns : In this third stage of production, MP becomes negative or less than zero. Due to negative Marginal Product. Total Product (i.e., TP) starts declining. Due to decreasing TP and negative MP, this stage is also called ‘Stage of Negative Returns’.
Diagrammatic Representation
Stage I : Till ON quantity of variable factor.
Stage II: In between NS quantity of variable factor.
Stage III : After OS quantity of variable factor.

In above fig. Law of Variable Proportion has been represented. Other factors being fixed, change in quantity of one factor results in three different stages of production.

First Stage : Stage of Increasing Returns : This stage has been shown till ON quantity of variable factor. At the end of this stage, MP and AP become equal to each other (see point Q). In this stage, AP increases continuously and MP is positive and greater than AP as a result of which TP increases at the increasing rate. Reasons for increasing returns to a factor is that with less amount of variable factor in the beginning, optimum utilisation of fixed factors does not become possible.

As more and more units of variable factor are employed, intensive use of fixed factors becomes possible and production increases. In this way, additional units of variable factor increases efficiency of fixed factors. Fixed factors being indivisible cannot be used in lesser amount from technical point of view. So, they cannot be used with less amount of variable factor. Hence, more units of variable factor are used and it increases production. This is called increasing retunrs. In this stage, TP curve is shown point O to point K. OK can be divided into two parts or the first stage can be divided into two parts :

(a) Point O to Point F : TP is increasing with increasing rate because MP is continuously increasing till point P. Form point O to point F, TP is convex to X-axis.

(b) Point F to Point K : Total production increases but at a decresing rate because MP decreases but is positive (see point P to point Q). TP curve between point F to point K is concave to X-axis.

Point F on Total Product curve at which MP is maximum is called ‘Point of Inflexion’. After this point, total product increases at a decreasing rate.

Second Stage : Stage of Decreasing Returns : This stage has been shown on TP curve between point K and point T. In this stage, although TP increase but at a decreasing rate because both MP and AP i.e., marginal product and average product decreases. This stage, ends at the point, where MP is zero (Point S).

When MP is zero, then TP is maximum (see point T). This stage explains that if OS uits of variable factors are used, TP will be maximum. Reasons for decreasing returns an this stage are that fixed factors of production cannot be increased in short-run. When ON units of variable factors are.used with fixed factors, then MP decreases till zero level due to over utilisation of fixed fators and as a result of which internal diseconomies occur. In other words, extensive use of variable factors with fixed factors results in decline or decrease in MP.

Third Stage : Stage of Negative Returns : In this stage, Total Production (TP) starts decreasing after point T because at point T, marginal productivity of variable factors is zero. If after point S, an additional unit or marginal unit of variable factor is used, then marginal productivity of that additional unit becames negative and as a result TP starts declining. Therefore, this stage is called ‘Stage of Negative Returns’. In this stage, variable factors exceed fixed factors. This disbalanced or unequal ratio between the two, makes marginal productivity or variable factors negative.

Question 29.
Discuss the short-run cost curve with the help of diagram.
Answer:
Conceptually, in the short run, the quality of at least one input is fixed and the quantities of the other inputs can be varied. In tb. short-run period, factors, such as land and machi.iury, remain the same.

On the other hand factor such as labour and capital, vary with time. In the short run, the expansion is done by living more labour and in creasing capital. Following are the cost concepts that are taken into consideration in the short-run.

I. Total Fixed cost (T.F.C) : Refer to the cost that remain fixed in the short period. These costs do not change with the change in the level of output. Therefore, the slope of TFC curve is horizontal straight line.

II. Total variable cost (T.V.C) : Refers to the cost that change with the change in the level of production. If the output is zero, then variable cost is also zereo.

III. Total Cost (T.C.) : Involves the sum of TFC and TVC ss It can be calculated as follow total cost = TFC + TVC TC also changes with the changes in the level of output-on there is a change in TVC.

IV. Average Fixed Cost (AFC) : Refers to the per unit fixed costs of production. In other words, AFC inplies fixed cost of production divided by the quantity of output produced.
AFC = TFC/Output
TFC is constant on production increase, thus AFC falls.

V. Average Variable Cost (AVC) : Refer to the per unit variable cost of production. It implies organization’s variable costs divided by the quanity of output produced.
It is calculated as AVC = TVC/Outputty6

VI. Average Cost (AC) : Refers to the total costs- of production per unit of output.
AC is calculated as :
AC = TC/Output
AC = TC/Output
AC is equal to the sum of total of AFC and AVC

VII. Marginal Cost (MC): Refers to the addition to the total cost for producing on additional unit of product.
Marginal cost is calculated as :
MC = TC_N = TC_n-1
n = Number of units produced
It is calculated as :
MC = ATC/A Output

Question 30.
What is Perfect Competition ? Explain the characteristics of Perfect Competition.
Answer:
Perfect competition is that market situation in which a large number of buyers and sellers and found for homogeneous product single buyer or the seller are not capable of affecting the prevailing price and hence in a perfectly competition market, a single market price prevails for the commodity.
Features of Perfect Competition :

1. Large number of buyers and sellers : Perfect competition market has a large number of buyers and sellers and hence any buyer or seller can not influence the market price. In other words individual buyer or seller can not influence the demand and supply conditions of the market.
   Paper
2. Homogeneous product : The units sold in the market by all sellers are homogeneous (or identical) in nature.
3. Free entry and exit of firms : In perfet competition any new firm may join the industry or any old firm may quit the industry. Hence there is no restrication on free entry or exit of firms into/form the industry.
4. Perfect knowledge of the market: In perfect competition every buyer has the perfect knowledge of market conditions. None of the buyers will buy the commodity at higher price than the prevailing price in the market. Hence only one price prevails in the market.
5. Perfect mobility of factors : In perfect competition the factors of production are perfectly mobile. Factors can easily be mobile from one industry to other industry (or one firm to another firm) without any difficulty.
6. No transportation cost : Transportation cost remains zero in perfect competition due to which one price prevails in the market.

Question 31.
How the problems of double counting in computation of natonal income can be removed ?
Answer:
Meaning : Double counting means counting of the value of the same product (or ependiture) more than once. How ? According to output method, of calculating national income value of only final goods and services produced by all the production units of a country during a yera should be counted. In others words, value of intermediate goods which enter into final goods Ce.g. paper used in printing of books, raw cotton used in garments, wheat used in making breads, should not be taken into acount.

But in actual practice, while taking value of final goods, value of intermediate goods also gets included because every producer treats the commodity he sells as final irrespective of weather it is used as intermediate or final good. For instance, while taking value of final goods like cycles the value of tyres, tubes, frames, bells etc. (intermediate goods) used in manufacturing these cycles also gets included inadvertently.
In this way certain items are counted more than once resulting in over estimation of national product to the extent of the value of intermediate goods included. This is called the problem of double counting which means counting value of the same commodity more than once.

How to avoid Double Counting : Theoritically we may say that there may be two alternative ways of avoiding double counting namely
(i) final product approach
(ii) value added approach.
But in actual practice, double counting still occurs unintentionally- in final product approach because every producer treats the product he sells as final product though the same night have been used by the buyer as an intermediate product. Therefore, this problem is perfectly solved by value added method according to this method ‘instead of taking value of finai products, value added by eacb firm at each stage of production is included.

Clearly value added by all the four firms is Rs. 3500 comprising Rs. 1000 by A + Rs 500 by B + Rs. 700 by C + Rs: 1300 by D. There is no scope of double counting in this method. Thus to avoid double counting, the value added method also known as industry of origin method is used in computation of national income. It is worth mentioning that total value added is equal to value of final product.

Question 32.
What is Domestic Product ? How Gross Domestic Product is calculated ?
Answer:
Domestic product referss to the money value with in of all the final goods and services produced with in the domestic territory of a country, the following equation is used to calculate the Gross Domestic product (GDP): GDP = C +1 + G (X-M) or GDP = Private consumption + Gross isnvestment + government investment + government spending + (exports – imports).

It transforms the money value measure, nominal GDP, into an index for quantity of total output.

Question 33.
Explain main points of Keynesian theory of income and employment.
Answer:
According to Keynesian employment theory in short period; total production, i.e., national income in capitalist economy depends on the level of employment because in short period other factors of production such as capital, technique, etc., remain constant. Employment level depends on effective demand. That level of aggregate demand at which it becomes equal to aggregate supply is called effective demand.

Aggregate Demand : The total demand of goods and services in an economy is termed as ‘aggregate demands’ which is expressed in terms of total expenditure made in the economy. Thus, aggregate demand in an economy is measured in terms of total expenditure on goods and services.

In other words, aggregate demand refers to total expenditure that the residents of a country are ready to incur on the purchase of goods and services at given level of income.

Aggregate Demand = Consumption Expenditure + Investment Expenditure AD = C + I
Aggregate Supply : The concept of aggregate supply is related to the total supply of goods and services made available by all producers in the economy. It means that aggregate supply depends on the production made by producers.

A necessary condition of equilibrium (income level or employment level) in an economy is
Aggregate Demand = Aggregate Supply C+I=C+S

Classical viewpoint explains the income equilibrium level at full employment level, i.e., aggregate demand can equal aggregate supply only at a point of full employment.

Countrary to it, according to Keynesian viewpoint aggregate demand equals aggregate supply at the point before full employment level (i.e., taken place at underfull employment level). Aggregate demand has to be increased for increasing employment in the economy.

i.e. sin Keynesian viewpoint, under-full employment, equilibrium can be converted to full employment equilibrium only by increasing aggregate demand.

According to Keynes, “Under employment equilibrium is a situation in which aggregate demand (which is less than full employment aggregate demand) is equal to aggregate supply so that there is equilibrium but some resources remain unemployed.”

In this situation, factors are not fully employed and all laborers do not get employment. According to Keynes, under employment situation appears due to deficient aggregate demand but not due to deficiency of aggregate supply.
In above Fig. at ON 1 employment level, AD = AS but it is a situation of under-full employment. When aggregate demand AD increases to AD|, full employment level On is obtained.

Bihar Board 12th Biology Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 2 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Total Marks : 70

Instructions for the candidates:

1. Candidates are required to give answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as for as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections: Section – A and Section – B
6. In Section – A, there are 35 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with blue/black ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/ Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet otherwise result will be treated as invalid.
7. In Section – B, there are Non-objective type questions. There are 18 Short answer type questions, out of which any 10 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 6 long answer type questions, out of which any 3 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

There are 1 to 35 objective type questions with 4 options. Choose the correct option which is to be answered on OMR Sheet. (35 x 1 = 35)

Question 1.
All tissue can be formed from
(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Stem cell
Answer:
(d) Stem cell

Question 2.
Astrogen and Progesterone are secreted by
(a) Ovary
(b) Testis
(c) Placenta
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Placenta

Question 3.
Which one is not a part of anther wall?
(a) Endothecium
(b) Endothelium
(c) Tapetum
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Endothelium

Question 4.
Which of the following is true fruit?
(a) Coconut
(b) Apple
(c) Pear
(d) Cashew
Answer:
(a) Coconut

Question 5.
Haploid chromosome number in dog is
(a) 23
(b) 39
(c) 19
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 39

Question 6.
Which one does not show Oestrus cycle?
(a) Cow
(b) Sheep
(c) Monkey
(d) Dog
Answer:
(c) Monkey

Question 7.
Which one of the following is a major source of air pollution?
(a) Industries
(b) Automobiles
(c) Burning coals
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
Bt cotton is resistant to
(a) Insects
(b) Weeds
(c) Salts
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Insects

Question 9.
Lamarck was from
(a) India
(b) England
(c) France
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) France

Question 10.
Which among the following is a hereditary disease
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Diabetes
(c) Cretenism
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Haemophilia

Question 11.
Which bacteria is helpful in the formation of curd from milk?
(a) Anabena
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Lactobacillus
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Lactobacillus

Question 12.
The example of retrovirus is
(a) Plasmodium
(b) TMV
(c) HIV
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) HIV

Question 13.
Spermatogenesis produces
(a) Sperm
(b) Ova
(c) Zygote
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sperm

Question 14.
Humulin term is used for
(a) Digestive enzyme
(b) Antibiotic
(c) Chitin
(d) Human insulin
Answer:
(d) Human insulin

Question 15.
Pomato is a hybrid of
(a) Tomato and Cabbage
(b) Carrot and Radish
(c) Potato and Tomato
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Potato and Tomato

Question 16.
The substance which causes a definite change in gene is called
(a) Mutagen
(b) Alkaloid
(c) Cytotoxin
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Mutagen

Question 17.
Linkage was discovered by
(a) Muller
(b) Punnet
(c) Mendel
(d) Morgan
Answer:
(d) Morgan

Question 18.
A child with mother of A group and father of AB group will not have the following blood group
(a) A
(b) B
(c) AB
(d) O
Answer:
(d) O

Question 19.
The ratio 9 : 7 is produced due to
(a) Complementary genes
(b) Lethal genes
(c) Epistatic genes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Complementary genes

Question 20.
The exposure of X-ray enhances the frequency of
(a) Linkage
(b) Segregation
(c) Crossing over
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Crossing over

Question 21.
Part of DNA which switch their position are called
(a) Exon
(b) Cistrons
(c) Transposons
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Transposons

Question 22.
Nucleic Acids are polymers of
(a) Amino acid
(b) Nucleosides
(c) Nucleotides
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Nucleotides

Question 23.
The lac operon consists of
(a) One structural gene
(b) Three structural gene
(c) Four structural gene
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Three structural gene

Question 24.
The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by
(a) Alec Jeffreys
(b) Griffith
(c) Mirsky
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Alec Jeffreys

Question 25.
In split genes, the coding sequences are called
(a) Exons
(b) Introns
(c) Cistrons
(d) Operons
Answer:
(a) Exons

Question 26.
Vermiform appendix is a
(a) connecting link
(b) vestigial organ
(c) homologous organ
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) vestigial organ

Question 27.
Use and disuse was proposed by
(a) Darwin
(b) Haeckel
(c) Lamarck
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Lamarck

Question 28.
Modern man is called
(a) Neanderthals
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Homosapiens
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Homosapiens

Question 29.
Nervous system is influenced by
(a) Cocaine
(b) Heroine
(c) Hashish
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 30.
Pathogen of malaria is
(a) Aedes
(b) Wuchereria
(c) Anopheles
(d) Plasmodium
Answer:
(d) Plasmodium

Question 31.
The term ecology was coined by
(a) Odum
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Haeckel
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Haeckel

Question 32.
Organisms which can inbreed with each other come under the same
(a) Kingdom
(b) Family
(c) Species
(d) Genus
Answer:
(c) Species

Question 33.
In a food chain, herbivores are
(a) Primary producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Primary consumers

Question 34.
Ovulation is induced by a hormone called
(a) FSH
(b) LH
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) LH

Question 35.
Bamboo species flower
(a) Only one in lifetime
(b) Every year
(c) Once in 12 years
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Once in 12 years

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

In this section, there are 18 short answer type question (each carryies 2 marks) out of which answers any ten (10) questions. (10 x 2 = 20)

Question 1.
Describe briefly a Technique of gel elecrophoresis.
Answer:
Gel electrophoresis is a technique of separating DNA fragments, formed by the action restriction endonucleases. The fragments of DNA are placed in typical agarose gel under an electric field. The DNA fragments move towards the anode as these fragments are negatively charged molecules. The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. The smaller the fragments size, the farther it moves.

The separated DNA fragments are stained with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation. The DNA fragments are seen as orange coloured and are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is known as elocution. The DNA fragments purified in this way are used in construction recombinant of DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.

Question 2.
Where is Bee-keeping practiced ? What are the main points for successful bee-keeping ?
Answer:
The bee-keeping is practised in area where there are sufficient bee pastures of wild shrubs, fruit orchards and cultivated crops. Bee-hives can be kept in one’s courtyard, on the verandah of the house or even on the roof.
The main points for successful bee-keeping are :

1. Selection of suitable location for keeping bees.
2. Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
3. Catching and hiving of swarms.
4. Management of bee-hives during different seasons.
5. Handing and collection of honey and bees wax.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Haemophilia.
Answer:
It is sex linked recessive disease which is transmitted from unaffected carrier female to male progeny. In this disease a single protein is affected that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood. As a result of this a simple cut results into non stop bleeding. The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons. The possibility of a female to become haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female has to one atleast carrier and the father should be haemophilic. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria has a number of haemophilic descendents as she was a carrier of the disease.

Question 4.
Name one organ analogous to the wings of bird. Why are they both analogous ? Can you include the wing of bat also with them under the same category ? Give reasons.
Answer:
The wings of an insect are analogous to the wings of bird. They are analogous because both perform the same function but have the dissimilar structure and origin. The wings of an insect are modified outgrowth of the body without having bone where-as wings of birds are modified fore-limbs. The wings of a Vt cannot be put under the same category. The wings of a bat and birds are homologous organs as both are modified and perform the same function of flying.

Question 5.
How does sickle cell anaemia is caused ? What are its symptoms?
Answer:
Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of valine for glutamine at the sixth position in |3 chain of globin molecule of haemoglobin. The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization under low oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like structure. In this disease, red blood cells become elongated sickle like structure. It is autosomal disease due to recessive genes.

Symptoms-In this disease, red blood cells become elongated and curved under low oxygen tension. Individuals with this disease suffer attacks due to aggregation of red blood cells. These erythrocytes are destroyed more rapidly than the normal red blood cells leading to anaemia.

Question 6.
Define the term Biotechnology. Why has it become important lately?
Answer:
Biotechnology : It is the branch of micro-biological science which is concerned with the utilization of micro-organisms, plants and animal cells and their components to generate useful products and services in industrial processes.

Biotechnology has become very important because it gives us wide variety of products in immense qualities. Most of the industries for preparing alcohol, enzyme, antibiotic and vaccines etc. at large scale are using microbes. Through these products earlier used to prepare at home in meager amounts but biotechnology thas opened a new way with greater potentialities.

Question 7.
What is Adaptation? What type of adaptation is found in organisms of water?
Answer:
Adaptation is an attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, behavioural) that enables the organisms to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Many adaptations have evolved over a long evolutionary time and are genetically fixed. In the absence of an external source of water, the Kangaroo rat in North American deserts is capable of meeting all its water requirement through the internal fat oxidation. It also has the ability to concentrate it urine so that minimum volume of water is used to remove excretory products.

Many desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces and have their stomata arranged in deep pits to minimise water loss through transpiration. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is called Allen’s Rule.

Question 8.
Explain main steps in plant breeding.
Answer:
Plant breeding as a technology has helped to increase yields to a very large extent. It is the purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields and are disease resistant. Classical plant breeding involves crossing or hybridisation of pure lines, followed by artificial selection to produce plants with desirable traits of higher yield, nutrition and resistance to diseases. With advancements in genetics, molecular biology and tissue culture, plant breeding is now increasingly being carried out by using molecular genetic tools. Plant breeding programmes are carried out in a systematic way worldwide in government institutions and commercial companies.

Question 9.
Describe three advantages and three disadvantages of cross pollination in plants.
Answer:
Following are the three advantages of cross-pollination in plants:

• New hybrids of plants can be produced by this method.
• It introduces variations due to genetic recombination.
• The offsprings produce are better adapted to change in environment.

Three Disadvantages of Cross-pollination:

• There is enormous loss of pollen grains.
• Good characters can be diluted and undesirable characters will enter in the progeny.
• There is always a chance factor for it.

Question 10.
Distinguish between structural gene, regulatory gene and operator gene.
Answer:
Structural gene: This is a gene which has the information to code for amino acid sequence. It produces m-RNA to synthesize a specific polypeptide (enzymes) and it is regulated as a unit,by a single switch (operator).

Regulatory gene: It is a gene that produces repressor to inhibit the action of an operator gene and thus, turns off the operon. It also controls the rate of synthesis of the produces of other gene.

Operator gene: It is a gene which switches on or off the adjacent structural genes. When this gene is on, then the expression of structural genes occur to initiate the transcription and translation but in the off condition, no synthesis of polypeptide chain takes place.

Question 11.
Write a short note on ‘Adaptive Immunity’?
Answer:
Every antigen is processed by antigen-presenting cells like macrophages, B lymphocytes etc. The processed antigen is presented on the surface of these cells. A subgroup of T cells, called T-help cells, specifically interacts with the presented antigen and becomes activated. The activated T help cells then activate B cells and a sub-group of T cells called T cytotoxic cells in a specific manner. The activated B and T cytotoxic cells proliferate to produce clones. All the cells of a clone recognise the same antigen and eliminate it.

Question 12.
What is Biogas? Name the biomass and bacteria involved in the production of Biogas.
Answer:
Biogas is the mixture of gases (predominantly methane) produced during decay of biomass in the absence of oxygen. The biomass used in the production of biogas is animal dung, sewage, crop residues, vegetable wastes, water hyacinth, poultry droppings and wastes from agro-based industries. Methanogens (Methanobacterium) which grow anaerobically on cellulosic material produce large amount of methane along with CO₂ and H₂.

Question 13.
Expand ELISA. On what principle ELISA test is based?
Answer:
ELISA: means Enzymes Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay. This is a simple and versatile technique which is used most widely for the screening HIV and is based on the principle of Ag- Ab reaction.

Question 14.
How is rabies caused ? Write about its symptoms and control measures in brief.
Answer:
Rabies is caused by Iyssavirus type-1 which RNA containing virus. In man it is caused by the bite of a rabid dog. The disease is transmitted from one organism to other through the saliva which enters wound made by the bite of the animal.
Symptom: The virus stimulates nervous system and damage the cells of spinal cord and brain.
It causes high fever, severe pain. The victim develops fear from water (Hydrophobia)
Control:

• The patient should be isolated in a quiet room protected from external stimuli.
• A series of injections are advised to be injected.

Question 15.
What is Gene gun ? Give its utility.
Answer:
Gene gun: It is the new technology where vectorless direct gene transfer occurs in organisms. DNA coated into microscopic pellets is directly shot into target cells.

Utility: This technique is used to insert genes that promote tissue repair into cells near wounds, leading to a reduction of healing time.

Question 16.
Write the important symptoms of Down’s Syndrome.
Answer:
Down syndrome is also known as Trisomy. It is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome -21 symptom.

• Developmental delays and physical and mental disabilities caused by genetic disorder.
• Flat face and short neck is present in child.

Question 17.
Write short notes on Global Warming.
Answer:
Global Warming is the phenomenon of increase in the global mean temperature caused by greenhouse gases. Due to global warming, there is average increase in temperature in the atmosphere.

Question 18.
What is transcription?
Answer:
The first step of protein syntheris is known as Transcription. During transcription step the instruction encoded in the DNA of the genes are transcribed into the nucleotide sequence code of a RNA. Because this RNA molecule causes the Protein Synthesis instruction in the word a ‘message’ from the gene to the ribosome. So, it is called mRNA.

Long Answer Type Questions

There are 6 long answers type question (each carrying 05 marks) out of which answers any three questions. (5 x 3 = 15)

Question 19.
Give an account of Anemophily.
Answer:
Anemophily is a mode of pollination or transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma through the agency of wind. The flowers which are wind pollinated are called anemophilous. The anemophilous flowers are characterized by the following adaptations
(a) Flowers are small, colourless, inconspicuous, odourless and nectarless.
(b) Calyx and corolla are either reduced or absent.
(c) Filament of stamens are usually long and versatile.
(d) Pollen grains are small, light, dry, dusty and some times winged (e.g. pine).
(e) Pollen grains are infinite in number.
(f) Stigmas are hairy and branched.
(g) When flowers are unisexual, male flowers are more abundant than female flowers.
In bisexual flowers the stamens are generally numerous.
Examples of wind pollinated flowers are grasses, sugarcane, bamboo, maize etc.

Question 20.
Give an account of Recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:
rDNA technology:

1. DNA sequence is obtained from tissue culture.
2. Specific restriction endonuclease is selected from the specific bacteria.
3. Restriction endonuclease cuts specific DNA at the two ends.
4. Some restriction endonuclease cuts a matching DNA sequence from a plasmid.
5. Ligase enzyme which acts as a molecular glue joins the restriction fragment in the place vacated by the cut DNA segment of the plasmid. The plasmid DNA now contains foreign DNA and its DNA is called recombinant DNA (r.DNA)
6. Recombinant plasmids containing recombinant DNA are now injected into a host cell.
   This is done by electroporation.
7. Host bacterium divides to give multiple copies of recombinant DNA.
   

Question 21.
Define the following terms and give one example for each:
(a) Commensalism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Camouflage
(d) Mutualism
(e) Interspecific competition.
Answer:
(a) Commensalism: It is the type of interaction between two organisms where one is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed.
Example: The sucker fish bears a sucker on the dorsal side of its head which helps it to attach itself to the body of the shark. It benefits the sucker fish to get free transportation as well as free food left behind by the Shark.

(b) Parasitism: It is a type of interaction between two organisms where one lives at the expense of other.
Here, one is benefitted (parasite) and the other is harmed (host).
Examples: Lice are parasite on humans and ticks on dogs.

(c) Camouflage: It is a type of protective mechanism in many animals where they assume different shapes and colours resembling to the background for deceiving the predators as well as for ensuring better survival.
Example: Stick insect (Carausins morosus) resemble like a dry stick and leaf insect (Phyllium) looks like a leaf. Similarly, Praying maints mimics the green foliage to protect themselves from the predators and prey.

(d) Mutualism: It is the relationship between two organisms where both are benefitted for food, shelter and substratum for attachment.
Example: The fungal symbiotic association with algae is called lichens. The algae manufacture the food and shares with fungi. On the other hand the fungus provides the structural converging the anchorage to the algae.

(e) Interspecific competition: It is the competition between the individuals of two different species occurring in a habitat. In shallow South American lakes, the visiting flamingoes and resident fishes have interspecific competition for their common food.

Question 22.
What are the various sources of water pollution? Name some important constituents of effluents.
Answer:
The water gets polluted by the following sources:
(a) Domestic Waste: The large quantities of municipal and household wastes are discharged into the water and cause water pollution.

(b) Industrial Wastes: The contamination of water occurs with the industrial wastes such as pulp mills, leather, tanneries, sugar and oil refinery, steel, textile and jute mills, petroleum and chemical fertilizer plants. These wastes contain very harmful substances like pesticides, bleaching powder etc. which largely affect the flora and fauna.

(c) Sewage: Disposal of sewage into rivers and lakes cause several undesirable effects. The sewage water contains several organic substances, human and animal excreta, food residues, cleaning agents, detergents and other wastes which provide nutrition to bacteria and fungi and consequently cause deoxygenation of water with the formation of algae blooms.

(d) Thermal Pollution: Release of large volumes of hot water into a stream can cause serious thermal pollution. This thermal pollution can upset the life-cycle and metabolic activities of many aquatic plants and fishes. Not only fish, but entire aquatic ecosystem is also affected by the thermal pollution and its toxic effect increases with further rise in temperature.

(e) Oils, Grease and Petroleum Products: These when discharged into water by accident or by design are extremely toxic and immediately affect the living organisms of the oceans.

(f) Radio Active Wastes: These wastes from atomic reactors and plants into rivers or streams can affect the aquatic plants and animals to a very great extent. They cause ionizations.

(g) Industrial Effluents: The increased quantity of dissolved salts in water like fluorine, alkalis, phenols, cyanides, mercury compounds, various metals, insecticides, pesticides and excess of fertilizers may produce harmful effect on living organisms. The consumption of mercury leads to crippling deformity called minamata disease.

Question 23.
What is pollution? Write an essay on air pollution.
Answer:
Pollution is an undesirable change in the physical, or biological characteristics of air, water and soil that may affect human life or any other organism. The World Health Organization defines air pollution as the presence of materials in the air in such concentration which are harmful to man and his environment. A number of ingradients find these are mostly gases, which rapidly spread over wide areas.

Sources of air pollution: The sources of air pollutions are very large and varied. These are:

(i) Industrial pollutants: The common air pollutants which are discharged by the industrial chimneys and power houses are S02, C02, H2S and hydrocarbon together with dust, smoke and girt.

(ii) Automobile exhausts: Automobiles run by petro and diesel produce carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide and hydro-carbons. Hundred and thousands of tonnes of hydrocarbons and CO are emitted into air daily.

(iii) Ionizing radiations from radioactive substances: Ionizing radiations include ex, (3 particles and the gamma rays etc. These are produced by the atomic explosions and the testing of atomic weapons.

Air pollutants: The air pollutants have been separated into two categories directly from some identifiable sources.
These include: Sulphur compounds are SO₇, SO₃, H₂S etc.
Carbon compounds include oxides of carbon (CO + CO₂) and hydrocarbons.
Nitrogen compounds are NO₂ and NH₃
Halogen compounds are hydrogen fluoride (HF) and HC₁.

(ii) Secondary pollutants: The secondary pollutants are produced by the combination of primary emitted pollutants in the atmosphere.

Effects of Pollutants on Animals and Man: Only some of the direct or indirect effects of airborne pollutants on animal life have been studied so far. The general effect of air pollutants is on the respiratory tract and lung causing pulmonary Oedema and lung cancer. In addition to irritation in eyes, mucous membrane and pulmonary congestion, chronic bronchitis, lung carcinoma and other effects.

Flourosis in cattle is caused if exposed to fluoride-containing dusts. More subtle physiological effects of ciliary action, alternation in pulmonary physiology, specific enzyme inhibition and changes in blood chemistry. Inhaling of ozone causes dryness of membrane of mouth, nose and throat changes, visual activity causes headache, pulmonary congestion and oedema. Radio-active elements which enter the air through nuclear explosions come by earth as nuclear follents. These enter the biological system the absorption through the leaves or roots of plants and often result in the formation of cancer.

Control of Air pollution: Air pollution is caused mostly by human agencies. The use of cheap fuels with higher sulphur contents should be avoided. Use of expensive fuels of high quality should be recommended. Strict check on car exhaust should be maintained for contents. The poisonous gases going out in the atmosphere should be treated chemically. The persons working in chemical factories, polishing and spray industries should be provided with suitable gas dust masks.

Question 24.
What is radiation pollution? What are the effects of it?
Answer:
When in atmosphere harmful changes happen due to different types of radiations and radio-active materials then it is called radiation pollution. It is the physical pollution of air, water and soil with radioactive materials. It is natural as well as man-made. The effect of radioactive pollutants depends on (i) strength of radiation, (ii) rate of diffusion and deposition of the pollutants, (iii) the length of time for which the tissue is exposed to radiation, and (iv) half-life of pollutants. Environmental factors also influence their effects.

Effects of radiation pollution :

1. Due to radiation pollution, body becomes weak and life becomes short.
2. Radiation pollution is harmful for DNA, RNA, Protein, Spleen, etc.
3. Radio-active radiations cause sterility, defect vision, tumour of lungs, loss of tissues, etc.
4. Long time exposure in ultraviolet radiations causes skin related diseases.
5. For long time or time-to-time radiation of radio active materials may cause blood cancer or Leuckaemia.
6. Cells vary in their sensitivity to injury by radiation.
7. Chances of depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere by nuclear explosions.

Bihar Board 12th Chemistry Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Full Marks: 70

Instructions for the candidates

1. Candidates are required to give answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right hand margin indicates full marks.
3. While answering the questions, candidate should adhere to the words limit as far as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidates to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections : Section -A and Section-B
6. In Section A, there are 35 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with blue/black ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/Blade/ Nail on OMR Sheet otherwise your result will be treated as invalid.
7. In section-B, there are 18 short answer type questions (each carrying 2 marks), out of which only 10 (ten) questions are to be answered Apart from this there are 06 Long Answer type questions (each carrying 5 marks), out of which 3 questions are to be answered.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

In the following questions no. from 1 to 35, there is only one correct answer against each question. For each question, mark (darken) the correct answer on the OMR Sheet provided to you. (1 x 35 = 35)

Question 1.
How many types of Crystals are found ?
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 2.
Which of the following bond is found in H₂O (ice)?
(a) Hydorgen bond
(b) Metallic bond
(c) Ionic bond
(d) All
Answer:
(a) Hydorgen bond

Question 3.
One Faraday of electricity is equal to how many coulombs ?
(a) 96500
(b) 96550
(c) 94500
(d) 96000
Answer:
(a) 96500

Question 4.
Inverse of resistance is called ………..
(a) Conductance
(b) Resistance
(c) Good conductor
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None

Question 5.
For strong electrolytes λm ………..
(a) increases on dilution
(b) decreases on dilution
(c) remains constant on dilution
(d) All
Answer:
(a) increases on dilution

Question 6.
Chemisorption is ………..
(a) Irreversible in nature
(b) Reversible in nature
(c) Arises due to Van-der-Waals forces
(d) Depends on nature of the gas
Answer:
(a) Irreversible in nature

Question 7.
Chief ore of Iron is ……..
(a) Magnetite (Fe₃O₄)
(b) Haematite (Fe₂O₃)
(c) Siderite (FeCO₃)
(d) Iron pyrite (FeS₄)
Answer:
(b) Haematite (Fe₂O₃)

Question 8.
Which type of ore can be concentrated by Electromagnetic separation method
(a) Non-magnetic particles
(b) Magnetic particles
(c) Sulphide ores
(d) All the above options
Answer:
(b) Magnetic particles

Question 9.
Copper matte contains :
(a) Cu₂S and Cu₂O
(b) Cu₂S and FeS
(c) CuS₂ and Fe₂O₃
(d) Cu₂S and Cu
Answer:
(b) Cu₂S and FeS

Question 10.
Group 15 of Periodic Table includes Nitrogen and …………..
(a) Oxygen
(b) Phosphorous
(c) Carbon
(d) Argon
Answer:
(b) Phosphorous

Question 11.
d-block elements are also known as …………….
(a) Transition elements
(b) Typical elements
(c) Non-transition elements
(d) Alkali metals
Answer:
(a) Transition elements

Question 12.
d-block elements are also known as ………….
(a) Transition elements
(b) Typical elements
(c) Non-transition elements
(d) Alkali metals
Answer:
(a) Transition elements

Question 13.
Zinc is a ………..
(a) Transition element
(b) Lanthanide
(c) Normal element
(d) Element of s-block
Answer:
(c) Normal element

Question 14.
Mn³⁺ is an oxidising agent because………..
(a) half filled K₂-level
(b) Completely filled e_g level
(c) empty d-orbital
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) half filled K₂-level

Question 15.
U.P.A.C name of K₂[Zn(OH)₄] is………..
(a) Potassium tetrahydroxoxincate (II)
(b) Zinc di-hydroxide
(c) Zinc hydroxide potassium
(d) None
Answer:
(d) Racemic mixture

Question 16.
The stereo isomens related to each other as non- super imposable mirror images are called
(a) diastereomers
(b) enantiomers
(c) chiral compound
(d) Racemic mixture
Answer:
(a) diastereomers

Question 17.
Chloroform on treatement with O₂ in presence of light gives ………..
(a) Phosphene
(b) Phosgene
(c) Phosphorescence
(d) Methane
Answer:
(b) Phosgene

Question 18.
Alcohols and Phenols are formed when one of the hydrogen atom of Alkane and Arenes are replaced by which group ?
(a) – Cl
(b) – OH
(c) – CHO
(d) – COOH
Answer:
(b) – OH

Question 19.
Glycerol is a …………..
(a) Monohydric alcohol
(b) Di-hydric alcohol
(c) Trihydric alcohol
(d) Tetrahydric alcohol
Answer:
(c) Trihydric alcohol

Question 20.
Simplest hydroxy derivative of Benzene is ………….
(a) Propanol
(b) Phenol
(c) Benzylal cohol
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 21.
IUPAC name of the compound

(a) 2, 5-dimethyl Phenol
(b) l-Hydroxy-2-methyl toluene
(c) 1-Hydroxy-2, 3-dimethyl benzene
(d) Hydroxy dimethyl benzene
Answer:
(a) 2, 5-dimethyl Phenol

Question 22.
Chloro-ethane on reacting with ammonia gives …………
(a) Ethanamine
(b) Propanamine
(c) Benzylamine
(d) Ethane nitrile
Answer:
(a) Ethanamine

Question 23.
Amides on reduction with LiAlH₄ ………………
(a) Alkanes
(b) Alkylamines
(c) Alcohols
(d) Acids
Answer:
(b) Alkylamines

Question 24.
IUPAC name of HCOOH is …………..
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Formic acid
(c) Methanoic acid
(d) Oxalic acid
Answer:
(c) Methanoic acid

Question 25.
IUPAC name of Oxalic acid is …………..
(a) Metanoic acid
(b) Ethanoic acid
(c) Ethanedioic acid
(d) Benzene
Answer:
(c) Ethanedioic acid

Question 26.
The formula of Methylnitrile is ……………
(a) CH₃NC
(b) CH₃CN
(c) C₂H₅CN
(d) C₂H₅NC
Answer:
(b) CH₃CN

Question 27.
Simple Carboxylic acid are soluble in water due to formation of………………………….
(a) Co-Valent bond
(b) Hydrogen bond
(c) Ionic.hood
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Co-Valent bond

Question 28.
The formula of Fructose is ……………
(a) C₆H₁₂O₆
(b) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
(c) C₆H₁₂O₅
(d) C₆hH₆O₆
Answer:
(b) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

Question 29.
Carbohydrate that yields three to ten mono­saccharides units on hydrolysis are called ………..
(a) Mono-saccharide
(b) Oligo-saccharide
(c) Poly-saccharide
(d) Di-saccharide
Answer:
(a) Mono-saccharide

Question 30.
Amino acid contains two functional groups, one is – COOH and other is …………
(a) – OH
(b) – NH₃
(c) – NH₂
(d) NH₄
Answer:
(b) – NH₃

Question 31.
Polymers of a-amino acid is called …………….
(a) Protein
(b) Peptines
(c) Peptides
(d) Dipeptides
Answer:
(b) Peptines

Question 32.
Polythene is a polymer of ?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethyne
(d) Propene
Answer:
(b) Ethene

Question 33.
Rubber, Starch, Cellulose and Protein are ……………
(a) Synthetic polymers
(b) Natural Polymers
(c) Semi-Synthetic polymers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Natural Polymers

Question 34.
Buna- N and Buna- S are the types of ……………….
(a) Natural rubber
(b) Synthetic rubber
(c) Polythene
(d) Bakelite
Answer:
(b) Synthetic rubber

Question 35.
The drug used to reduce fever is known as ………………..
(a) Antacid
(b) Analgesic
(c) Anti-pyretic
(d) Anti-biotic
Answer:
(c) Anti-pyretic

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

In this Section, there are 18 Short answer type questions (each carrying 2 marks), out of which answer any 10 questions.

Question 1.
What do you mean by Frenkel’s Defect ?
Answer:
This defect is shown by those ionic solids in which there is a large difference in the size of ions,
e.g. ZnS, AgCl, AgBr, Agl.

Question 2.
What do you mean by an Ideal solution ?
Answer:
Ideal solutions obc, Rault’s law over entire range of concentration. For these solution A_mix H = O and A_mix V = O.
In binary solutions, if A – B interactions are nearly equal to A – A or B – B interactions then it is an ideal solution. Solutions of n -hexane & n-heptane, bromoethane & chloroethane, benzene & toluene, etc., are nearly ideal in behaviour.

Question 3.
Define Osmotic pressure ?
Answer:
The hydrostatic pressure which develops on account of osmosis is called Osmotic pressure or the excess pressure that must be applied on the solution to prevent osmosis is called Osmotic pressure.
Osmotic pressure (π) is directly proportional to molarity (C) of the solution at a given temperature π α C
\(\pi=\mathrm{CRT} \text { or, } \pi=\frac{n_{2}}{\mathrm{V}} \mathrm{RT}\left[\text { where }, \mathrm{C}=\frac{n_{2}}{\mathrm{V}}\right]\)

Question 4.
Why Copper sulphate is not stored in zinc pot ?
Answer:
Zinc is stronger reducing agent than copper. Thus zinc forms zinc sulphate during chemical reaction. Therefore, copper sulphate is not stored in zinc pot.
Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu

Question 5.
In Nernst equation
\(\mathbf{E}=\mathbf{E}^{0}-\frac{\mathbf{R} \mathbf{T}}{\mathbf{n} \mathbf{F}} \mathbf{I n} \frac{[\mathbf{M}]}{\left[\mathbf{M}^{\mathbf{n}+}\right]} \mathbf{R}\)
Answer:
It gives the relation between electrode potential, temperature and concentration of metal Ions.

When T = 298 K, F = 96500 C mol-¹
R = 8.314 J K^-1 & concentration of solid M is taken as unity.

Question 6.
Define Cell Constant ?
Answer:
Cell constant : The quantity l/a is called cell constant where ‘l’ is the distance of two electrodes and ‘a’ is the area of cross section of electrode. It is expressed in the units cm^-1.
\(Cell constant =\frac{\text { Distance between the electodes }}{\text { Area of Cross }-\text { Section }}\)

Question 7.
What are Enzymes ?
Answer:
Enzymes are complex nitrogenous organic compounds. They are usually protein molecules of high molecular mass. These are biochemical catalysts as numerous reactions that occur in the bodies of animals & plants to maintain the life process are catalysed by enzymes.

Question 8.
Why does PH₃ fumes in moist air ?
Answer:
PH₃ reacts with moist air to form impure phosphine, which bums in air and forms dense white smoke of metaphosphoric acid.

Question 9.
Why H₂O is liquid and H₂S is gas at room temperature ?
Answer:
H₂O contains hydrogen bonding but H₂S does not contain hydrogen bonding due to oxygen is more electro­negative than sulphur.

Question 10.
On what ground you will say that, Scandium (Z = 21) is a transition metal ?
Answer:
The last electron of Scandium enters in 7-orbital. It has vacant 7-orbital.
Sc (Z = 21)-Is² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d¹, due to vacant 7-orbital & entering of last electron scandium is a transition element.

Question 11.
Which Ore is stronger reducing agent Cr²⁺ or Fe²⁺ ? Explain.
Answer:
Cr²⁺ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe²⁺.
This is quite evident form the E° values. E° Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺ = – 0.4/V and E° Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ = 0.77 V.
Reason : T⁴ → 7³ occurs when Cr²⁺ changes to Cr³⁺ ion while T⁶-) T⁵ takes place when Fe²⁺ gets converted to Fe³⁺ ion. Now d⁴ → 7³ transition is easier as compared to T⁶ → T³ transition. Therefore, Cr²⁺ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe²⁺.

Question 12.
What do you mean by inner-transition elements ?
Answer:
The last electron added to each element is an f- electron. These two series of elements are hence called the inner transition elements (f-block Elements). The two rows of elements at the bottom of the Periodic Table, called the Lanthanoids, Ce (Z = 58) – Lu (Z = 71) & Actinoids, Th (Z = 90) – Lr (Z = 103).

Question 13.
What do you mean by co-ordination number ?
Answer:
Co-ordination number : The number of co­ordinate covalent & covalent bonds formed by the central metal of a complex compound is called co-ordination number of the central metal.
Example : [Ag (NH₃)₂]C1 C.N of Ag⁺ ion is 2.

Question 14.
Define Bidentate Ligand ?
Answer:
Bidentate or didentate Ligands: Ligands which has two donar atoms and has tendency to attach to the central ion through two donar atoms. Examples are

Question 15.
What Aldehyde on oxidation will give ?
Answer:
On oxidation aldehyde gives carboxylic acid

Question 16.
Name one water soluble and one fat soluble Vitamin.
Answer:
(a) Water soluble vitamins – (Vitamin B & C)
(b) Fat-soluble vitamins-(Vitamin A, D, E & K)

Question 17.
Define Molarity and Mole fraction.
Answer:
Molarity (M) : It is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved in one litre (or one cubic decimetre) of the solution.
\(\text { Molarity }(\mathrm{M})=\frac{\text { Number of moles of solute } \times 1000}{\text { Volume of solution }(\mathrm{m} l)}\)
Molality (m) : It is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of the solvent.
\(\text { Molality }(\mathrm{m})=\frac{\text { Number of mol. of solute } \times 1000}{\text { Mass of solvent }(\mathrm{g})}\)

Question 18.
Differentiate between Condensation and Polymerisation.
Answer:
Condensation : The condensation polymers are formed by repeated condensation reaction between two monomeric units having different bifunctional and trifunctional groups with the elimination of small molecules like water, alcohol, hydrogen chloride etc.
Example : Nylon 6, 6

Polymerisation: The process of formation of polymers from respective monomers is called polymerisation,

Long Answer Type Questions

There are 06 long answer type questions (each carrying 05 marks), out of which answer any there questions.
(5 x 3 = 15)

Question 19.
Find the order of reaction of the following :
(a) Rate = K[A]^1/2 [B]^3/2
(b) Rate = K[A]^3/2 [B]^-1
Answer:
(a) Rate = K[A]^1/2 [B]^3/2
Therefore order = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{3}{2}=\frac{4}{2}=2\)
This is called second order reaction.

(b) Rate = K [A]^3/2 [B]^-1
Therefore, order = \(\frac{3}{2}+(-1)=\frac{3}{2}-1=\frac{3-2}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\)
This is first order of reaction

Question 20.
Write in brief about how Sulphuric acid is manufactured by Contact process ?
Answer.
Sulphuric Acid (H₂SO₄) : It is called the king of chemicals and is one of the most widely used industrial chemicals. Manufacture : Sulphuric acid is manufactured by contact process which involves 3 steps

• Burning of sulphur or sulphide ores in air to produce SO₂
  
• Conversion of SO₂ into SO₃ by reaction with air in the presence of catalyst U₂O_s.
• Absorption of SO₃ in H₂SO₄ to give Oleum (H₂ S₂ O₇)

The key step is the catalytical oxidation of SO₂ with O₂ to give SO₃ in the presence of V₂O₅.

The SO₃ gas is absorbed in concentrate H₂SO₄ to produce Oleum (H₂S₂O₇) which on dilution with water gives H₂SO₄ of desired concentration.
SO₃ + H₂SO₄ → H₂ S₂ O₇ (Oleum)
H₂S₂O₇+ H₂O → 2H₂SO₄ The sulphuric acid obtained by the contact process is 96 – 98% pure.

Question 21.
What happens when.
(i) Concentrated H₂S0₄ is added ict Calcium fluoride and heated ?
(ii) SO₃ is passed through water.
Answer.
(i) When concentrated H₂SO₄ is added to calcium fluoride and heated it gives calcium sulphate (CaSO₄) and hydrogen fluoride (HF)
CaF₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + 2HF

(ii) When SO₃ is passed through water it gives sulphuric acid.
SO₃ + H₂O → H₂SO₄

Question 22.
Write the electronic configuration of the following :
(a) Cr³⁺ (b) Cu⁺ (c) CO²⁺ (d) Fe²⁺ (e)Mn²⁺ [Atomic number of Cr = 24, Cu = 29, Co = 27, Fe = Mn = 25]
Answer.
(a) Cr³⁺ – [Ar] 3d³ 4s°
(b) Cu⁺ – [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s°
(c) Co²⁺ – [Ar] 3d⁷ 4s°
(d) Fe²⁺ – [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s°
(e) Mn²⁺ – [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s°

Question 23.
How will you convert the following ?
(a) Methane to Ethane
(b) Ethanol to Ethyl acetate
(c) Metane to Chloroform
(d) Ethanal to Ethanoic acid
(e) Acetic acid to methane
Answer.
(a) Methane to Ethane

(b) Ethanol to Ethyl acetate

(c) Metane to Chloroform

(d) Ethanal to Ethanoic acid

(e) Acetic acid to methane

Question 24.
Write short notes on
(a) Inductive effect
(b) Resonance
Answer.
Inductive effect: It is the process of displacement of electrons along, the chain of carbon atoms due to the presence of a polar covalent bond at one end of the chain. This is a permanent effect.
(a) – I effect: When the atoms or group of atoms of the polar covalent bond is more electro-negative than C, it is said to show -I effect.

(b) + I effect: If the substituent attached to the end of the carbon chain is electron donating, the effect is called + I effect.

Resonance : Molecules having two or more structures due to distribution of electrons but same molecular formula is called resonance.
e.g.Benzene molecule has the following structure.

It is represented by a double headed arrow (<->) between the resonating structure.

Conditions :

• The nuclei in each of the canonical structures must be in the same relative position.
• The resonating structure differ only in the way of distribution of electrons.

Bihar Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 1 in English Medium

Bihar Board 12th Physics Model Papers

Instructions for the candidates :

1. Candidates are required to give answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the Right-hand margin indicates full marks.
3. While answering the questions, candidates should adhere to the words limit as far as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections : Section -A and Section-B
6. In Section A there are 35 Objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with Blue/Black ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/ Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise, your result will be treated as invalid.
7. In section-B, there are 18 Short answer type questions (each carrying 2 marks), out of which only 10 (ten) questions are to be answered Apart from this there are 06 Long Answer type questions each carrying 5 marks, out of which 3 questions are to be answered.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Time : 3 Hours 15 Minute
Total Marks : 70

Objective Type Questions

In the following questions from no. 1 to 35, there is only one correct answer against each question. For each question, mark (darken) the correct answer on the OMR Sheet provided to you. (1 x 35 = 35)

Question 1.
The force acting between two electrons separated by distance r is proportional to
(a) r (b) r² (c) r^-2 (d) r^-1
Answer:
(c) r^-2

Question 2.
The dimensional formula for electric flux is
(a) [ML² T^-3 l^-1] (b) [ML³ T^-3 l^-1] (c) [ML² T⁺³ l^-1] (d) [ML³ T^-3 l]
Answer:
(b) [ML³ T^-3 l^-1]

Question 3.
The Torque experienced by an electric dipole of electric dipole moment \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) in a uniform field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) is

Answer:
\(\text { (a) } \overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)

Question 4.
The work done in moving a unit positive charge through a distance x on an equipotential surface is
(a) xj (b) \(\frac{1}{x} j\) (c) zero (d) x²j
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 5.
The electric field intensity inside a charged hollow spherical conductor is
\((a) \epsilon_{0}
(b) E o \sigma
(c) zero
(d) \frac{\epsilon \circ}{\sigma}\)
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 6.
A conductor of capacity 20 mF is charged to 1000 V. The potential energy of the conductor will be
(a) 20 x 10⁴ J (b) 10⁴ J (c) 20 x 10³ J (d) 10³ J
Answer:
(d) 10³ J

Question 7.
The emf of a cell is measured by
(a) Voltmeter (b) Potentiometer (c) Ammeter (d) Voltameter
Answer:
(b) Potentiometer

Question 8.
Kirchoff’s current rule is related to Principle of conservation of
(a) Momentum (b) Energy (c) Charge (d) Angular momentum
Answer:
(c) Charge

Question 9.
Electron volt (eV) is a measure of
(a) Potential difference (b) Charge (c) Energy (d) Current
Answer:
(c) Energy

Question 10.
The Torque experienced by current carrying loop of magnetic moment \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{M}}\) placed in a magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}}\) is

Answer:
(a)

Question 11.
Resistance of Galvanometer is G. Shunt used to allow 1 % of main current through the Galvanometer is
\((a) \frac{\mathrm{G}}{99}
(b) \frac{\mathrm{G}}{90}
(c) \frac{\mathrm{G}}{100}
(d) \frac{99 \mathrm{G}}{100}\)
Answer:
\(\text { (a) } \frac{\mathrm{G}}{99}\)

Question 12.
A Current is flowing in a circular coil. If the radius of the coil is doubled, then the value of magnetic field intensity at its centre will be
(a) same (b) half (c) double (d) four times
Answer:
(b) half

Question 13.
The working of a Dynamo is based on
(a) heating effect of current (b) electro-magnetic induction (c) induced magnetism (d) induced electricity
Answer:
(b) electro-magnetic induction

Question 14.
Unit of self inductance is
(a) Weber (Wb) (b) Ohm (Ω) (c) Henry (d) Gauss
Answer:
(c) Henry

Question 15.
If N₁ and N₂ are number of turns in primary and secondary coil of a transformer, then
(a) N₁ > N₂ (b) N₂ > N₁ (c) N₁ = N₂ (d) N₁ = 0
Answer:
(b) N₂ > N₁

Question 16.
Power factor of L – R circuit is

Answer:
(b)

Question 17.
The ratio of value of magnetic field at same distance from mid point of a small magnet at its axial and equatorial position is
(a) 2′: 1 \(\text { (b) } 1: \sqrt{2}\) \(\text { (c) } \sqrt{2}: 1\) (d) 1 : 2
Answer:
(a) 2 : 1

Question 18.
The angle of dip at magnetic pole of earth is
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 180°
Answer:
(b) 90°

Question 19.
The direction of transmission of the electromagnetic wave is
(a) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) (b) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) (c) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) (d) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(d) parallel to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)

Question 20.
An air bubble inside water shines due to
(a) refraction (b) reflection (c) total internal reflection (d) diffraction
Answer:
(c) total internal reflection

Question 21.
The equivalent focal length of co-axial contact combination of two lenses of power -15D and +5D will be
(a) -10 cm (b) +10cm (c) -20 cm (d) +20 cm
Answer:
(a) -10 cm

Question 22.
The final image in astronomical telescope is
(a) Real and inverted (b) Virtual and erect (c) Virtual and inverted (d) Real and erect
Answer:
(b) Virtual and erect

Question 23.
Cylindrical lenses are used to correct defect of eye is called
(a) Myopia (b) Hypermetropia (c) Astigmatism (d) Presbyopia
Answer:
(c) Astigmatism

Question 24.
In Rayleigh scattering of light, the intensity of scattered light is proportional to the wave-length X in the form of
\((a) \frac{1}{\lambda^{2}}
(b) \frac{1}{\lambda}
(c) \frac{1}{\lambda^{3}}
(d) \frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)
Answer:
\((d) \frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

Question 25.
The colour of a thin film is due to
(a) interference (b) diffråction (c) scattering (d) dispersion
Answer:
(a) interference

Question 26.
Ilrcwstcrs Jaw is
(a) μ = cos i_p
(c) μ = sin i_p
(b) μ = tan i_p
(d) μ = cot i_p
Answer:
(a) μ = cos i_p

Question 27.
The energy of a photon of wave-length λ is
(a) \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) (b) \(\frac{h \lambda}{C}\) (c) hcλ (d) \(\frac{\lambda}{\mathrm{hc}}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{h \lambda}{C}\)

Question 28.
Which of the spectral line of hydrogen spectrum lies in visible region?
(a) 50 Hz (b) 25 Hz (c) 100 Hz (d) 200 Hz
Answer:
(a) 50 Hz

Question 29.
Which one of the following is a chargeless particle?
(a) α-partcle (b) β-partcle (c) proton (d) photon
Answer:
(a) α-partcle

Question 30.
The time during which the quantity of any radio¬active material becomes half of its original value is called
(a) Average age (b) Half age (c) Decay constant (d) Time period
Answer:
(b) Half age

Question 31.
The majority charge carrier in /i-type semi¬conductor is
(a) a-partcle (b) electron (c) proton (d) hole
Answer:
(b) electron

Question 32.
In full wave rectification, if input frequency is 50 Hz, then output frequency will be
(a) 50 Hz (b) 25 Hz (c) 100 Hz (d) 200 Hz .
Answer:
(a) 50 Hz

Question 33.
The Boolean – expression for NAND gate is
\(\text { (a) } \overline{A+B}=Y\) (b) A + B = Y \(\text { (c) } \overline{A.B}=Y\) (d) A.B = Y
Answer:
\(\text { (c) } \overline{A.B}=Y\)

Question 34.
Result of conversion of decimal number 15 into Binary will be
(a) (1100)₂ (b) (1001)₂ (c) (1111)₂ (d) (11001)₂
Answer:
(c) (1111)₂

Question 35.
Which frequency range is used in TV transmission?
(a) 30 Hz – 300 Hz (b) 30 KHz – 300 KHz (c) 30 MHz – 300 MHz (d) 30 GHZ – 300 GHz
Answer:
(c) 30 MHz – 300 MHz

Section – II

Non-Objective Type Questions
Short Answer Type Questions

Question nos. from 1 to 18 are short answer type questions. Each question of this category carries 2 marks. Answer any ten (10) questions.

Question 1.
What is Electrostatic Shielding? Give its practical application.
Answer:
Electrostatic Shielding:
The electrostatic shielding is the best way to protect some area in vacuum or in alir from the influence of externd electric field.

The technique of electrostatic shielding is applied basically in designing the cable of television.

Question 2.
Give two factors which affect capacitance of a capacitor.
Answer:
The capacity of a capacitor depends upon the following two factors.
(a) On the surface area of the plate of the capacitor.
(b) Distance between the two plates of the capacitor.

Question 3.
Define current density \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{J}}\) and write expression for Current density in terms of Drift velocity.
Answer:
Current density The current per unit area of conductor is called Current density. It is denoted by J.
\(\mathrm{J}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{A}}\)

It is a Vector quantity.
S.I. unit Ampere/m²
We know that I = ηAeV_d; \(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{d}}=\frac{\mathrm{I}}{\eta \mathrm{Ae}} ; \quad \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{d}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{ne}}\)

Question 4.
A wire of 12 Ω resistance is stretched to double its length. Find out the new resistance of the wire.
Answer:
In this position volume remains constant

Question 5.
Explain Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
Ampere’s circuital law : It states that the line integral of magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{(B)}\) around any closed path or circuit is equal to μ₀ times of total current (I) threading the closed circuit.
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{d} 1}=\mu_{0} \mathrm{I}\)
where μ₀ = permeability of vacuum.

Question 6.
What is Shunt? Explain its uses.
Answer:
Shunt :
It is wire of low resistance, joined in parallel with circuit. The current capacity of pivoted type galvanometer is not very large. When large current passes through the cirucit then its coil may burn. To save them from damage, a low resistance wire is joined in parallel and it is called Shunt.

Uses of Shunt :

• In the protection of coil of Galvanometer
• In the conversion of Galvanometer into Ammeter.

Question 7.
Lenz’s law is the law of conservation of energy. Explain.
Answer:
Lenz’s Law : It states that the induced current produced in a circuit always flows in such a direction that it opposes the change or the cause that produces it.

According to Lenz’s law, the induced emf. opposes the change that produces it. It is this opposition against which we perform mechanical work in causing the change in magnetic flux. So, it is the mechanical energy which is converted into electrical energy. Thus, Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy.

Question 8.
State two differences betwen the magnetic properties of soft iron and steel.
Answer:
Magnetic properties of steel and soft iron :
Steel have high value of retentivity and high value of coercivity. The area of hystersis loop is large for steel. So, it is used to make permanent magnet.

The soft iron have high retentivity and low coercivity. The area of hysteresis loop is small for soft iron, so it is used to make electro-magnet.

Question 9.
Explain Wattless current.
Answer:
Three properties of electro-magenetic waves :

• The electro-magnetic waves are produced by accelerated charges.
• Electro-magnetic waves do not require any material medium for their propagation.
• The electro-magnetic waves obey the principle of Superposition.

Question 10.
State two main characteristics of electro-magnetic waves.
Answer:

• Electromagnetic waves are emitted by electrically charged particles undergoing acceleration.
• Electromagnetic waves of different frequency are called by different names. Since they have different source and effects no matter.

Question 11.
Two thin convex lenses of power 4D and 6D are placed co-axially at a distance of 20 cm apart. Find the focal length and power of the combination of lenses.
Answer:

Question 12.
Write necessary conditions for Interference?
Answer:
Necessary conditions for Interference of light.

• The two sources should emit the light waves continuously.
• The light waves should be of same wave-length.
• The light waves emitted should preferably be of the same amplitude.
• The two light sources should be very narrow.
• The two sources of light must be very close to each other.

Question13.
Write Truth table and Boolean algebraic expression of OR gate and AND gate.
Answer:
Boolean expressiosn of OR gate A + B = Y
Truth table for OR gate

Boolean expression for AND gate A • B = Y Truth table for AND gate

Question 14.
Write the de-Broglie wave-length of an electron of Kinetic energy E.
Answer:
de-Broglie wave length of an electron :
Let m is mass of electron, e is the charge and it is accelerated with potential v.
Energy of electron E = ev …………………….. (i)

K.E. of electron

where h = Plank” constants.

Question 15.
What is Amplitude Modulation? Explain.
Answer:
Amplitude Modulation When the modulating wave is superimposed on a high-frequency carrier wave in a manner that the frequency of the modulated wave is same as that of the carrier wave but its amplitude is modified in accordance with that of the modulating wave the process is called amplitude modulation.

Question 16.
What will be the value of flux of electric field on a closed surface ABC placed near charges +q₁ +q₂ and -q₃?

Answer:
Total charge inside the closed surface = + q₁ – q₃
total electric flux charge q₂ is outside Φ = \(\frac{q_{1}-q_{3}}{\epsilon_{0}}\) the closed surface.

Question 17.
In going from water to glass will speed of light increase or decrease? Explain.
Answer:
When the light ray passes from water to glass its speed decreases because glass is denser medium in comparision to water. When light ray passes from water to glass its wave length decreases. So, speed of light also decreases.

Question 18.
A particle of mass m and charge q is projected with velocity \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}\) perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). The particle is set in a circular motion. What will be the radius of this circular path?
Answer:
When the charge particle moves perpendicular to magnetic field then its experiences the force F = qBVsinθ
Here θ = 90°; F = qBV ……………………..(i)
when it moves on aircular path then centripetal force
\(F=\frac{m V^{2}}{r}\) …………… (ii)

From equation (i) and (ii)
\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}=q B V ; m v=q B r ; \quad r=\frac{m v}{q B}\)
This is the expression for radius of circular path.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question nos. from 19 to 24 are long answer type questions. Each question of this category carries 5 marks. Answer any three questions. (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 19.
State Gauss’s law. Applying this law obtain electric field due to an infinitely long thin uniform charged straight wire.
Answer:
Gauss’s Theorem :
It states that the total electric flux through a closed surface enclosing a charge is equal \(\frac{1}{\epsilon_{0}}\) to times the magnitude of charge enclosed.
\(\phi=\frac{q}{\epsilon_{0}}\)

where ε₀ = permitivity of vacuum or air Expression for electric intensity due to infinitely long charged st. wire.

Consider a thin infinitely long st. line charge having a linear charge density λ placed along yy’.

To find electric field due to line charged at point P distance r from it, draw a cylindrical surface of radius r and length l about the line charge as its axis. The cylindrical surface may be treated as the Gaussian surface for the line charge.

If E is the magnitude of electric field at point P, then electric flux through the Gausssian surface is given by
Φ = E x Area of curved surface of cylinder
Φ = E x 2πrl …………………… (i)

According to Gauss’s theorem

Question 20.
Establish the formula for a lens
\(\frac{1}{f}=(\mu-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathbf{R}_{2}}\right)\)
Answer:
Lens Maker’s Formula :
Suppose L is a thin lens. The refractive index of the material of lens is n₂ and it is placed in a medium of refractive index nx. The optical centre or lens is C and X. X is principal axis. The radii of curvature of the surfaces of the lens are Rj and R₂ and their poles are P₁ and P₂. The thickness of lens is t, which is very small. O is a point object on the principal axis of the lens. The distance of O from pole P₁ is u. The first refracting surface forms the image of O at V at a distance v’ from P₁. From the refraction formula at spherical

The image I acts as a virtual object for second surface and after refraction at second surface, the final image is formed at I. The distance of I from pole P₂ of second surface is v. The distance of virtual object (E) from pole P₂ is (v -1).

For refraction at second surface, the ray is going from second medium (refractive index n₁) to first medium (refractive index (n₂), therefore from refraction formula at spherical surface.
\(\frac{n_{1}}{v}-\frac{n_{2}}{\left(v^{\prime}-1\right)}=\frac{n_{1}-n_{2}}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\) …………………….. (ii)

For a thin lens t is negligible as compared to v’, therefore from (ii)

where \(\mathrm{l} n_{2}=\frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\) is refractive index of second medium (i.e., medium of lens) with respect to first medium.

If the object O is at infinity, the image will be formed at second focus i.e.,

if u = ∞, v = f₂ = f , Therefore from equation (iv)

This is the formula of refraction for a thin lens. This is also called Len’s maker’s formula.

Question 21.
Define Interference of light. Derive an expression for Fringe-Width in Young’s double slits experiment.
Answer:
Interference of Light :
The phenomenon of non-uniform distribution of energy in the medium due to superposition of two light waves is called interference of light.

Expression for Fringe Width :
Consider that two coherent source of light S₁ and S₂ are placed at a distance apart and screen is placed at a distance D from the plane of two source. Let P be a point on the screen at distance y from the centre of screen. If .v is the path difference between light waves reaching point P from the source S₁ and S₂ then x = S₂P – S₁P

Fringe Width :
The spacing between any two consecutive fright fringes is equal to the width of dark frine therefore width of dark fringe.

Thus, in Young’s double slit experiment, the bright and dark fringes are of same width. It is denoted by β.
\(\beta=\frac{D \lambda}{d}\)

Question 22.
State KirchofTs laws. Applying these laws obtain the condition for balanced Wheatstone Bridge.
Answer:
Kirchoff’s law : First law :
In the network of conductor the algebraic sum of current meeting at a point is always zero. It also causes junction rule.

Second law :
It states that in any closed part of an electrical circuit, the algebraic sum of the emf is equal to the algebraic sum of the products of the resistance and current flowing through them. It is also called loop rule. This law is based on the law of conservation of energy.

Wheatstone bridge :
It is one of the accurate arrangements for measuring an unknown resistance. It is based on the principle of Kirchoff s law.

Four resistances P, Q, R and S are connected to form a quadrilateral of galvanometer and a tapping key k₁ (called galvanometer) are connected between points B and D as shown in the figure.

Applying Kirchoff s second law, for closed part ABDA in the circuit I₁ P + I_g g – (I – I₁) S = 0
where g is the resistance of galvanometer In the balanced state I_g = 0

Applying Kirchoff s law in closed part BDCB

From equation (i) and (ii)
\(\frac{P}{S}=\frac{Q}{R}\left[S=\frac{P}{Q} \cdot R\right]\)

Thus unknown resistance can be calculated.

Question 23.
State Biot-Savart law. Applying this law obtain expression of magnetic Held at a point on the axis of a circular coil carrying electric current.
Answer:
Biot-Savart law :
This law establish the relation between magnetic field and current.

Let xy is aonductor in which current I is flowing from v to y. P is the point at the distance r and at this point magnetic field \(\overrightarrow{d B}\) depends upon following factor :

where μ₀ is permeability of vacuum or air.

Magnetic field at the axis of a circular loop :
Consider a circular loop of radius R carrying current I, with its plane perpendicular to the plane of paper. Let P be a point of observation on the axis of this circular loop at a distance x from its centre O. Consider a small element of length dl of the coil at point A. The magnitude of the magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{dB}}\) at point P due to this element is given by

The direction of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{dB}}\) is perpendicular to the plane containing \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{dl}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}\) is given by Right hand screw rule. As the angle between I \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{dl}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}\) is 90°, the magnitude of the magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{dB}}\) is given by,
\(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0} I}{4 \pi} \frac{d l \sin 90^{\circ}}{r^{2}}=\frac{\mu_{0} I d l}{4 \pi r^{2}}\)

If we consider the magnetic induction produced by the whole of the circular coil, then by symmetry the components of magnetic induction perpendicular to the axis will be cancelled out, while those parallel to the axis will be added up. Thus the resultant magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) at axial point P is along the axis and may be evaluated as follows :

The component of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{dB}}\) along the axis,

Therefore the magnitude of resultant magnetic induction at axial point P due to the whole circular coil is given by

Question 24.
What is Zener diode? Explain its use in a Voltage regulator.
Answer:
Zener diode :
The specially designed Junction diode, which can operate in the reverse breakdown voltage region continuously without being damaged are called Zener diode.

Symbol of Zener diode

Zener diode as a voltage regulator :
The use of Zener diode is based on the fact that in reverse break down region, a very small change in voltage across the Zener diode produces a very large change in the current through the circuit.

If voltage is increased beyond Zener voltage, the resistance of the Zener diode drops considerably. Consider that the Zener diode and a resistance R, called dropping resistor are connected to fluctuating d.c. supply, such that the Zener diode is reverse biased. Whenever voltage across the diode tends to increase, the current through the diode rises out of proportion and causes a sufficient increase in voltage drop across the dropping resistor. As a result, the output voltage lowers back to the normal value. Similarly, when the voltage across the diode tends to decrease, the current through the diode goes down out of proportion, so that the voltage drop across the dropping resistor is much less and now the output voltage is raised to normal.

Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Business Studies Model Question Paper 5 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hour 15 Min
Full Marks : 100

Instructions

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefull.
4. This question paper has two sections : Section -A and Section-B.
5. In Section-A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/ Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section-B, there are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 08 Long answer type questions, out-of which any 04 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. -1 to 50 have four options provided, out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each questiion carries 1 (one) mark. [50 x 1 = 50]

Question 1.
Profession in an Art _________
(a) Work by other
(b) Self work
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Work by other

Question 2.
Project Evalution is _________
(a) 1986
(b) 1987
(c) 1968
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) 1986

Question 3.
Risk capital establishment established For _________
(a) Import Analysis
(b) Export Analysis
(c) Both (a) and
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Import Analysis

Question 4.
A good Plane is ________
(a) Expensive
(b) time consuming
(c) flexible
(d) rigid
Answer:
(c) flexible

Question 5.
“Management is a profession.” This statement is of _________
(a) George R. Terry
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) American Management Association
(d) Lawrence A. Appley.
Answer:
(c) American Management Association

Question 6.
Of all managerial activities planning is the _________
(a) beginning
(b) end
(c) beginning & end both
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) beginning

Question 7.
For delegation of authority to be effective, it is essential that accompanied with is necessary
(a) authority
(b) main power
(c) incentives
(d) Promotion
Answer:
(a) authority

Question 8.
Recruitment in the life of organisation is _________
(a) continuous
(b) occasionally
(c) once
(d) twice
Answer:
(a) continuous

Question 9.
In effective communication. language should not be used.
(a) expressive
(b) impressive
(c) ambiguous
(d) courteous
Answer:
(c) ambiguous

Question 10.
Who was the father of scientific management ?
(a) H. S. Parsons
(b) Diemer
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
(c) F. W. Taylor

Question 11.
Method (s) of training is /are _________
(a) conference
(b) lectures
(c) apprenticeship
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) conference

Question 12.
Henry Fayol’s principles of management are _________
(a) 10
(b) 3
(c) 14
(d) 15.
Answer:
(c) 14

Question 13.
Financial manager takes decision as to _________
(a) finance
(b) investment
(c) dividend
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) finance

Question 14.
Effective controlling is _________
(a) static
(b) pre-determined
(c) dynamic
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) dynamic

Question 15.
Supervision is an element of _________
(a) leadership
(b) planning
(c) direction
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) direction

Question 16.
Capital market deals in _________
(a) short-term funds
(b) medium-term funds
(c) long-term funds
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 17.
Consumer Protection Act was passed in _________
(a) 1886
(b) 1986
(c) 1996
(d) 1997
Answer:
(b) 1986

Question 18.
Headquarters of SEBI is in _________
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 19.
Grapewine is _________
(a) formal Communication
(b) barriter to communication
(c) lateral communication
(d) Informal communication
Answer:
(a) formal Communication

Question 20.
Marketing includes _________
(a) Purchase
(b) Sales
(c) Warehousing
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 21.
Advertisement is deemed as _________
(a) Wastage
(b) Investment
(c) Luxury
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Investment

Question 22.
Bank overdraft facilities are available on _________
(a) Savings Bank Account
(b) Current Account
(c) Term Deposit Account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Current Account

Question 23.
New issued shares deal in _________
(a) Secondary Market
(b) Primary Market
(c) Secondary Market and Primary Market both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Primary Market

Question 24.
Budget is a statement of budgetary policy.
(a) Financial
(b) Final
(c) Work
(d) Non-financial
Answer:
(a) Financial

Question 25.
Main component (s) of New Economic Policy is/ are _________
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Globalisation

Question 26.
Authority cannot be delegated of _________
(a) Routine work
(b) Secret work
(c) Ordinary work
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Secret work

Question 27.
The proporinder of adminisimtive management was _________
(a) Fayol
(b) Taylor
(c) Terry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Taylor

Question 28.
Which of the following depends on the sweet will of employees ?
(a) Formal Organisation
(b) Informal Organisation
(c) Functional Organisation
(d) Divisional Organisation
Answer:
(b) Informal Organisation

Question 29.
Co-ordination is _________
(a) voluntary
(b) necessary
(c) unnecssary
(d) waste of time
Answer:
(b) necessary

Question 30.
Fixed capital is needed for period _________
(a) short
(b) long
(c) short and long both
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) long

Question 31.
Controlling is the aspect management.
(a) Theory
(b) Behaviour
(c) Mental
(d) Physical
Answer:
(b) Behaviour

Question 32.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of entrepreneurship ?
(a) Risk taking
(b) Innovation
(c) Creative activity
(d) Managerial training
Answer:
(d) Managerial training

Question 33.
Comprehensive plan for accomplishing an organisation’s objectives as _________
(a) Policy
(b) Programme
(c) Objective
(d) Strategy
Answer:
(d) Strategy

Question 34.
Barrier in effective communication is _________
(a) language
(b) distance
(c) individual differences
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) individual differences

Question 35.
Which one amongst the following is not the Consumer product _________
(a) Raw material
(b) Refrigrator
(c) Old figure
(d) Share
Answer:
(c) Old figure

Question 36.
The disputes which come under Consumer Protection Act are _________
(a) disputes as to sale of shares by a company
(b) disputes of Penal Nature
(c) disputes as to sale of defective goods by the seller
(d) service disputes.
Answer:
(c) disputes as to sale of defective goods by the seller

Question 37.
Entrepreneurial Development institute of India is situated in _________
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Mumbai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Ahmedabad

Question 38.
The organisation spreading rumours is called _________
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) Centralised
(d) Decentralised
Answer:
(b) Informal

Question 39.
The maximum duration of commercial paper is _________
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 24 months
Answer:
(a) 3 months

Question 40.
Stock exchange protects the interest of _________
(a) Investor
(b) Company
(c) Government
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Investor

Question 41.
which following is called “The Father of Scientific Management.”
(a) Alton Meyo
(b) F. W. Taylor
(c) Feyol
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) F. W. Taylor

Question 42.
Management is :
(a) An art
(b) A science
(c) An art and science both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) An art and science both

Question 43.
14 principle of management is represented _________
(a) Henry Feyol
(b) F. W. Taylor
(c) Peter Drucker
(d) A. H. Maslo
Answer:
(a) Henry Feyol

Question 44.
In which following is important step in planning ?
(a) Decision
(b) Organiation
(c) Asiimption
(d) Direction
Answer:
(c) Asiimption

Question 45.
To whom social liabilities of management :
(a) To whole society
(b) Employee class
(c) Government
(d) Organisation
Answer:
(a) To whole society

Question 46.
What is the function of management ?
(a) Planning
(b) Organisation
(c) Direction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 47.
The main object of budgeting is :
(a) Planning
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Controlling
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Controlling

Question 48.
“Scope of controlling” principle represented by :
(a) Henry Feyol
(b) Alton Meyo
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Alton Meyo

Question 49.
In inspiration’s “the principle of originated necessities” represented by :
(a) Hurjburg
(b) Maslo
(c) Alton Meyo
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Maslo

Question 50
communication is that _________
(a) One-sided process
(b) Two-sided process
(c) Multiple-sided process
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) One-sided process

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question no. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 out of them. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 x 3 = 30)

Question 1.
State the nature and characteristics of Principles of Management.
Answer:
Management Principles : These are the statement of fundamental truth based on creation and systematic analysis which provides guidlines for managerial decision making and action.
Nature and charecteristics of management Principles are the same which are following :

1. Flexiblity
2. Univarsal application
3. lack of unanimity
4. Beharourial.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Scientific Management ?
Answer:
Meaning : Scientific management means a sound management technique that tends to eliminate wastage harmonises the different factors and processes of production and pings about an all around efficiency in the working of the organisation.

Definition : Scientific management means knowing exactly what you want men to do and seeing that they do it in the best and the cheapest way.

Question 3.
State the meaning of Liberalisation.
Answer:
Industrial economy in India has always been regulated by licensing system and bureaucratic procedure regulated in red – tapism and rampant corruption.These obstacles obstructed economic growth. Liberalization is the process of freeing the economy from licence system and other regulations.
Features of liberalisation :

1. Simplifying importance export procedure
2. Simplifying the process of attracting foreign capital and technology,
3. To do away with the necessity of having a license for most of the industries
4. Removing restrictions for the movement of goods and services from one place to another
5. Freedom in determining the scale of business activities
6. Freedom to fix, the prices of goods and, services
7. Reduction in the rate of taxes
8. Freedom from unnecessary control over economy.

Question 4.
Describe the limitations of planning.
Answer:
The major limitations of planning are as follows:

1. Planning leads to rigidity : A well defined plan is drawn up with specific goals to be achieved within a specific time frame.These plans then decide the future course of action and managers may not be in the position to change it.This kind of rigidity in plans may create difficulty.
2. Planning may not work in a dynamic environment : The business environment is dynamic, nothing is constant.Planning cannot foresee everything and thus, there may be obstacles to effective planning.
3. Planning reduces creativity : Planning is an activity which is done by the top management.Usually the rest of the members just implements these plans.Thus, planning in a way reduces creativity since people tend to think along the same lines as others.There is nothing new or innovative.
4. Planning involves huge costs : When plans are drawn up huge costs are involved in their formulation.These may be in terms of time and money for example,checking accuracy of facts may involve lot of time.
5. Planning is a time – consuming proces :
   Sometimes plans to be drawn up take so much of time that there is not much time left for their implementation.
6. Planning does not grantee success.

Question 5.
What is financial management ?
Answer:
Financial management is concerned with optimal procurement as well as usage of finance for optimal procurement, different available sources of finance are identified and compared in terms of their costs and associated risks. Similarly, the finance so procured needs to be invested in a manner that the returns from the investment exceed the cost at which procurement has taken place. Financial management aims at reducing the cost of funds procured keeping the risk under control and achieving effective deployment of such funds. It also aims at ensuring availability of enough funds whenever required as well as avoiding idle finance.

Question 6.
Explain the elements of directing function of management.
Answer:
Direction includes the following elements:

1. Supervision : The term ‘supervision’ is normally used in management to mean overseeing the employees at work. Itimplies, instructing, observing, monitoring and guiding the subordinates at work place to ensure that plans and procedures are implemented as intended.
2. Communication : Communication is a process which involves a sender of- massage and a receiver.Communication is complete only when the receiver is able to interpret the massage as desired by the sender and responds to it.Communication is regarded as a two way process.The process of communication begins when one person wants to transmit a fact; idea ,opinion or other information to someone else.
3. Leadership : Leadership may be defined as the process of influencing the behavior of people at work towards the realization of specified goals.lt involves ability to use non- conceive influence on the activities,goals and motivation of others for achieving organizational objectives.
4. Motivation : Motivation is a mental state. lt is a driving force that people to action and continuous them in action.Motivation is the set of forces that cause people to behave in certain ways.

Question 7.
What is function of Stock Marketing ?
Answer
The functions of stock markets are mentioned below :

1. Liquidity : Stock exchange provides a ready market for the securities issued by various institutions.
2. Promotes the habit of saving and investment: Stock exchange promotes the habit of saving and investment among the general public.
3. Safety of Dealing : Stock exchange protects the interests of investors against malpractices or dishonesty through

(a) strict enforcement of rules and regulations, framed to protect the interests of investors,
(b) strict rules and regulation for listing of securities. In case the brokers adopt any malpractice in their dealings, their membership may be suspended for some time or cancelled or fine may be imposed.

Question 8.
Enumerate the sales promotion .
Answer:
Sales Promotion has defined by various authors as under :

1. L.KJohnson : “Sales Promotion consists of all those activities whose purpose is to supplement,to coordinate and to make more effective the efforts of the sales force,of the advertising department and of distributors and to increase sales and otherwise stimulate consumers greater initiative in buying.”
2. American Marketing Association : “Sales promotion comprises those marketing activities,other than personal selling,advertising and publicity that stimulate consumer purchasing and dealer effectiveness,non -recurrent selling efforts not in the ordinary routine.”
3. Luick and Zeiler :”Sales promotion as a tool of markets promotions gives rise to increase in product usage as well as expansion of markets for a product or introduction of a new product.”

Question 9.
Explian the four functions of management.
Answer:
The four functions of management are as follow :

(i) Planning : Planning is the function of determining in advance what is to be done and who is to do it. This implies setting goals in advance and developing a way of achieving them efficiently and effectively. Planning cannot prevent problems but it can predict them and prepare contingency plans to deal with them if and when they occur, .

(ii) Organising : Organising is the management function of assigning duties, grouping tasks, establishing authority and allocating resources required to carry out a specific plan. It determines what activities and resources are required. It decides who will do a particular task, what it will be done, and when it will be done. Organizing involves the grouping of the required tasks into manageable departments or work units and the establishment of authority and reporting relationships.

(iii) Staffing : Staffing is finding the right people for the right job. A very important aspect of management is to make sure that the right people with the right qualifications are available at the right places and times to accomplish the goals of the organisation. This is also known as the human resource function and it involves activities such as recruitment, selection, placement and training of personnel.

(iv) Directing : Directing involves leading, influencing and motivation employees to perform the tasks assigned to them. This requires establishing an atmosphere that encourages employees to do their best motivation and leadership are two key components of direction. Directing also involves communicating effectively as well as supervising employees at work. Motivating workers means simply creating an environment that makes them want to work.

Question 10.
Write short notes on function of financial management ?
Answer:
The finance all manager in order to achieve the objectives of financial management, performs many functions. These functions involve many financial decisions which may be discussed under two groups.

(a) Principle functions
(b) Supplementary functions.

(a) Principle functions :
These are the types of principle functions :

1. Estimatiay the financial Requirements
2. Decision a bout capital structure,
3. Dividend Devisions.

(b) Supplementary functions:
These are the types of supplementary functions :

1. Cash management,
2. Report with Investors
3. Stock Exchange Trends.

Question 11.
What are the advantages of partnership ?
Answer:
The advantages of partnership are as following :

1. Easy to starts : There is no complicated legal procedure to start partnership. It does not take much expenditure to start partnership. It can be started very easily.
2. Sufficient capital: Partnerhsip has more capital resources as compared to sole trade. It can even get Model larger amount of loans from other institutions on easy terms.
3. More resources : The partnership has resources, contributed by at the most ten persons in banking and twenty persons in other busness. It is also the combination of the talent of many persons, working as partners.
4. Specialization in management : A division of work in partnership is done in accordance with scientific management principles.
5. Balanced decision : Decisions are taken jointly by consulting each other, therefore, the partnership is able to take balanced decision.

Question 12.
Discuss the four points of marketing.
Answer:
The four points of marketing are :

1. Product
2. Price
3. Place
4. Promotion and are discussed as below :

(i) Product : Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market of for exchange.
For example : Hindustan Lever Company offers, number of consumer products like toiletries (close- up, tooth paste, lifebuoy, soap ec.) The important product decisions include decisions about the features, quality, packaging, lebelling and branding of the products.

(ii) Price : Price is the amount of money customers have to pay to obtain the product. The marketers have not only to decide about the objectives of price sitting but to analyse the factors determining the price and fix a price for the firm’s products.

(iii) Place : Place or physical distribution include activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers or intermediaries to reach the customers, providing support to the intermediaries. The other decision areas relate to managing inventory, storage and warehousing and transportation of goods from the place it is produced to the place it is required by the buyers.

(iv) Promotion : Promotion of products and services include activities that communicate availability features, merits etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. The promotional activities and spend substantial amount of money on the promotion of their goods through using number of tools such as advertising, personal selling and sales promotion techniques (like price discounts, free samples, etc.)

Question 13.
What is money market ?
Answer:
Enterprises need money, both for short medium and long’term. Medium and long medium and long term funds are raised in the capital market.
Short term funds are collected from the money market, short term means less than one year. Thus, money market is the market that facilitates the procurement of funds for short term or current requirements.
Some are the tools of money market-

1. Treasury Bill
2. Inter bank call money
3. Commercial paper
4. Certificate of Deposits
5. Trade bill / commercial bill

Question 14.
Define business company.
Answer:
The formation of a joint-stock company in India is to be done as per rules and guidelines envisaged in the companies act 1956. The meaning of companies business related with joint stock companies. Joint stock companies are made for profit and it is a optional institution which capital are undistributed in transferable shares. That is the mean it anybody can sell and purchase its share. The liabilities of the members are limited and general. It has a fixed existence and it is a artificial person and it is formed by common seal.

Question 15.
What are source of credit marketing ?
Answer:
In business the question of credit creditability is of almost significance in turns of an entrepreneur’s efforts on the basis of which the financial agencies and the businessman remain loyal and omitted to each other. This creditability is built on the basis of the business-man discipline creditability is achieved with a lot of efforts and difficulties and no remedy is available when it is lost. The transaction of the goods in the parties on the basis of commercial credit. It is called credit-marketing.

The sources of credit marketing are different type for example shares, debentures, banking companies and financial institutions from these sources traders get finance.

Question 16.
What is the role of profit/advantages in business.
Answer:
Roal of business should be profit maximisation some points are as follows :

1. Profit is the reward of labour.
2. Profit is the means of the satisfaction of human needs.
3. It is a measure of business efficiency.
4. Profit is the base of business protection, growth and stability.
5. Profit is the base of social responsibilities.
6. Profit is the cause of extension of various economies.
7. Profit is the base of exchange.
8. Profit is an incentive.

Question 17.
What is importance of consumer protection ?
Answer:
Consumer protection has a wide agenda. Importance of consumer protection from the consumers point of view.
Importance of consumers protection from the point of view of business are as follows :

1. Long-term interest of business : Satisfied customers not only lead to repeat sales but also provide good feedback to prospective customers and thus, help in increasing the customer base of business.
2. Business uses society’s resources : Business organisations use resources which belong to the society. They thus, have a responsibility to supply such products and render such services which are in public interest.
3. Socila Responsiblity : A business has social responsibilities towards varousnterest groups. Business organisations make money by selling goods and providing services to consumers.
4. Moral jusuficaPon : It is the moral duty of any business to take care of consumer’s interest and avoid any form of their exploitation. Thus, a business must avoid unscrupulous, exploitative and unfair trade practices like defective and unsafe products, adulteration, false and misleading advertising, hoarding, black marketing etc.

Question 18.
Explain the importance of financial planning in modern age.
Answer:
The importance of financial planning can be explained as follows:

1. It tries to forecast what may happen in future under different business situations
2. It helps in avoiding business shocks and surprises and helps the company in preparing for the future
3. If helps in co-ordinating various business functions e.g.sales and production functions,by providing clear policies and procedures
4. Detailed plans of action prepared under financial planning reduce waste,duplication of efforts, and gaps in planning
5. It tries to link the present with the future
6. It provides a link between investment and financing decisions on a continuous basis
7. By spelling out detailed objectives for various business segments,it makes the evaluation of actual performance easier.

Question 19.
Discuss the importance of communication in any business organisation.
Answer:
It is rightly said that managerial functions cannot be carried out without an efficient system of communication.We can give following arguments in favour of our decision:

1. Better coordination : Communication serves as a tool for coordinating activity.Coordination without communication is a remote possibility.Through communication employees come to know what is going on in other departments.
2. Quick decision and its enforcement : effective communication is needful for the quick
   decision.Effective communication translates the policies into effective instrument of seeing through the organisation on the veil of its progress.Effectiveness of the policies can be judged from its success which surely depends on effective communication system.
3. High morale of the employees : The effective medium of the communication develops the feeling of mutual trust.Hence,workers offer their proposals,suggestions and ideas.If suggestions of the workers are properly cared and promoted ,they will feed proud.All these help in boosting morale of the employees.

Question 20.
Explain the social responsibilities of the management.
Answer:
Social obligations means the responsibility of business to act in a manner which will serve the best interest of the society. The following are the various points which is need for assumption of social responsibilities :

1. Long-term business interest: While a business must seek to maximize profits and wealth, it must not igonre social and human problems of the society. Business is an important part of the society.
2. Government Intervention : The Government has favorable attitude towards business which fulfill their social obligations. Laws to prevent unfair trade practices, black marketing, overcharging, adulteration etc. bear proof of this.
3. Use of society’s resources : Business is a creation of the society and so it should respond to the requirements of the society. It is essential that every business enterprise should fulfill its social responsibilities.
4. Public image : If a business is conscious of its social responsibilities it will certainly enjoy a favorable image and will retain the needed credibility with the public.
5. Moral justification : Every business uses capital, physical, human resources of the society for business purposes.

Question 21.
Explain the various structures of organisation.
Answer:
The various forms of business organisations which is discussed follows :
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Joint hindu family business
(c) Partnership
(d) Cooperative societies and
(e) Joint stock company

(a) Sole proprietorship : Sole proprietorship is simple form of organisation. It is said that this organisation was evolved at the time when the man started living in family. As the time changed its shape and size went on changing. Only that person is responsible for its profits and losses. and services, creates employment opportunities, adopts new technology for the greater good of the people and leads the path towards growth and developments.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are Long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them. Each question carries 5 marks. (4×5 = 20)

Question 26.
“Money spent on advertising is a waste.”Do you agree with this view ? Give reasons in your answer.
Answer:
“Money spent on advertising is a waste.” We do not agree with this statement.The given statement is based on the following agreements :

1. Advertising makes people to buy things which they do not really need.
2. Advertising destroys utilities of old models already in used.Advertising introduces new products with modern technology.For example with the introduction of colour television,black and white TV,become unpopular.
3. Advertising leads to discontent in the minds of those people who are temperate to purchase advertising goods but are not able to do so because they cannot afford to buy.
4. The cost of advertisement has to be borne buy the consumers.
5. Advertising tends to develop monopolices which are not desirable from social point of view .For example ,Daldavanaspati ,coalgate toothpaste ,lux toilet soap etc.have so much monopolised the market that is very difficult new manufactures to complete with these products.
6. Advertising is morely degrading .Advertisement excessive use of outrangingssetiments ,exciting .emotions nude poses of fair sex.They lower down the calculater and moral based of the new younger generation. However,abovecritictism are exaggerated and ill- founded.Advertising performs the number of economics function .Advertising leads to increase sales and helps the firm to produce on a large scale. It creates more business and it rises the standard of leaving. The utility of advertisement has proven. lt immense need to modern business and therefore we cannot say that all advertising is unnecessary and wasteful.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Entrepreneurship ?Explain any three needs of entrepreneurship.
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is a skill,a view- point ,a thinking, a technique and a working procedure. Entrepreneurship means he capability and tendency to bear risks involved in industry and business.Entrepreneurship is an art ,a tact .view point .thought and technique.Entrepreneurship is a group behavior and knowledge based activity.Following are the three needs of entrepreneurship :

1. Resource mobilizations : After getting appraisal from funding agents,entrepreneur starts identifying and assessment of various resources that are needed as inputs to produce the desired output.The types of resources to be taken care of will include:
   • Materials
   • Money
   • Machines
   • Market availability
   • Technology and
   • Human resources Entrepreneurs try their best to get these resources at minimum cost.
2. Scanning the environment : The process of setting up of an enterprise begins with the scanning of business opportunities.To scan business opportunities entrepreneur depends upon personal observations .personal and professional contacts.reports of governments and other official documents,Discoveries of new products .published documents etc.
3. Development of product of product/ service : Scanning of business environment helps the businessmen to know the opportunities available.For example, on scanning Indian and international environment one can find that due to liberalization in trade policy there is more scope, of external trade but exactly which product to export/import in which quantity,at what price,to which country ,etc.are the next decisions businessman has to take.

Question 28.
“Human beings cannot be only motivated through monetary incentives,non -incentives,non – monetary incentives are also necessary for motivate them.” Explain about non-monetary incentives in this context.
Answer:
Financial incentives are used to motivate employees for higher work.However,individuals have various needs which they want to satisfy while working in an organisation.People at comparatively higher level of managerial hierarchy attach more importance to socio- physycological needs which cannot be satisfied by money alone.

They want status and recognition in society;they want to satisfy there ego needs and they want to achieve something in their lives,thus .management ,in addition to the financial incentives provides non -financial incentives to motivate people in the organisation.

Forms of Non -financial Incentives: In order to motivate the employees .management may use the following forms of non-financial incentives:

1. Praise of appreciation of work done : Recognition of satisfactory performance acts as a non- financial incentive since it satisfies one’s ego needs.However,this incentive should be used with great care because praising an incompetent employee creates resentment among competent employees.
2. Workers’ participation in management : Participation in management provides strong motivation to the employees.Gives them psychological satisfaction if there voice is heard participants in management provides for two ways communication and so imbibes a sense of importance
3. Suggestion system : Suggestion system is an incentive with satisfies many needs of the employees. Many organisations which use the suggestion system make use of cash awards for useful suggestion .They sometimes publish the workers name with the photograph in the company magazine.This motivates the employees to be in search for something which may be of greater use to the organisation.
4. Competition : If there is healthy competition among individual employees ,group of employees ,it leads them to achieve their personal or group goals.Hence,competition acts as none financial incentives.
5. Opportunity for growth : Opportunity for growth is another kind of intensive.If the employees are provide opportunity for their advertisement and growth to develop their personality,they feel very much satisfied and more communicate to organisation goals.

Question 29.
Explain the sub-clause of Memorandum of Association.
Answer:
The memorandum of association contains the following clauses :
(i) Name clauses : Under this clause, the name of the company is stated. Any suitable name may be chosen subject to the following restrictions :

• The name of the company must not directly or indirectly incude the word ’President”, “King”, “Queen”, “Emperor”, “National Flag”, “Small soale” and cottage Industriesd”, “Federal”, “Municipal”, “Provincial” etc.
• It must not be objectionable under the provisions of the emblems, and names.
• It should not be identifcal with or resemble the name of any existing company.
• The proposed name should not be objectionable in any other manner. It must not hurt the feelings of any section, of the society.
• The name of a public company should end with the word “Limited”. In case of private company. The name should end with “Private Limited”.
• The name has to be displayed on every letter pad or any poster or display of the company.

(ii) Domicile clause : In this clause, name of the state in which the registered office of the company is to be situated is mentioned. Domicile clause is important as it determines the jurisdiction of the court.

(iii) Object clause : It is the most important clause of Memorandum of Association. It defines the limits and scope of the operations of the company. The object clause must specify the objects of the company in the following order :

• The main object of the company to be pursued by the company on its incorporation and the objects incidental to the attainment of the main objects
• Other object of the company not included in the above clause.

(iv) Liability clause : The fourth clause must state whether liability of the members is limited if so, whether it is limited by shares or by guarantee. In a company limited by guarantee, the liability clause will state the amount which each member, shold undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of liquidation of the company.

(v) Capital clause : This clause, states the amount of capital, with which the company is registered, unless the company is an unlimited company. The shares into which the capital is divided must be of fixed value, which is commonly known as the nominal value of the share, the capital is variously described as “nominal”, “authorised” or “registered”. The company cannot issue shares without altering the memorandum as provided by section 94 of the companies act, 1956.

(vi) Association clause : The memorandum concludes with the subscription clause in which there is a declaration of association. The subscribers to the memorandum declare :

“We, the several persons whose names and addresses subscribed, are desirous of being formed into a company in pursuance of this memorandum of association, and we respectively agree to take the number of shares in the capital of the company set opposite our respective names.”

Then follow the names, addresses, occupations of the subscribers, and the number of shares each subscriber has taken and his signatures attested by a witness

Question 30.
Discuss the importance and methods of training.
Answer:
The importance of training are as follows :

1. Training is a systematic learning, always better than hit and trial methods which lead to wastage of efforts and money.
2. Training increases, employee morale and reduces absenteeism an employee turnover.
3. Improved skills and knowledge due to training lead to better career of the individual.
4. Training makes the employee more efficient to handle machines. Thus, less prone to accidents.
5. It helps in obtaining effective response to fast changing environment technological and economic.

There are various methods of training. These are broadly categories into two groups : On the job and off-the job methods.

On the job methods :

1. Apprenticeship programmed : Apprenticeship programmes put the trainee under the guidance of a master worker. These are designed to acquire a higher level of skill.
2. Coaching : In this method, the superior guides and instructs the trainee as a coach. The coach or counseler sets mutually agreed upon goals.
3. Internship training : It is a joint programmer of training in which educational institutions and business firms cooperate.
4. Job rotation : This kind of training involves shifting the trainee from one department to another or from one job to another.

Off the job methods :

1. Class room lectures/conferences : The lecture or conference approach is well adapted to conveying specific information rules, procedures or methods.
2. Films : They can provide information and explicitly demonstrate skills that are not easily represened by the other techniques.
3. Case study : Taken from actual experiences of organisations, cases represente attempts to describe, as accruetly as possible real problems that managers have faced.
4. Computer modelling : It simulates the work environment by programming a computer to imitate some of the realities of the job and allows learning to take place without the risk or high costs.
5. Vestibule training Employees learn their jobs on the equipment they will be using, but the training is conducted away from the actual work floor.
6. Programmed instruction : The method incorporates a prearranged and proposed acquisition of some specific skills or general knowledge.

Question 31.
Explain the long term financial sources in business.
Answer:
The financial requirements of a company may be classified as :

1. Long term finance
2. Medium term
3. Short term finance.

(i) Long term finance : Long term finance required for five years and above. Such finance is used for investment in fixed assets such as land, building, plant and machinery, furniture etc. Fixed assets are those assets which are required for permanent use and are not meant for sale. Long term finance is raised from shareholders, debenture holder, financial institutions and retained earnings.
Following are the main sources of long term finance :

1. Issue of shares : ‘Share’ is a share in the share capital of a company. According to section 2(46) of the companies act, “A share is the share in the capital of a company and includes stock except where a distinction between stock and share is expressed or implied.”
2. Issue of Debentures : A debenture is an instrument issued under the common seal of the company, acknowledging its debt to the holder under the terms and conditions specified in the instrument.
3. Ploughing back of profit or retained profit: Ploughing companies do not generally distribute the whole amount of profits as dividend.A certain proportion is transferred to reserves and utilised as additional capital. Thus, the financial needs of a company can be yet by retaining a part of the annual profits.
4. Loans from specialised financial institutions Loan when a bank mokes an advance in lump-sum against some security. The entire loan amount is paid to the borrower either in cash or by credit to his account, financial institutios have been set up of all India and regional levels for accelarating the growth of industries. These are mainly IFCI, ICICI, SECs, IDBI, SIDFCs, LIC, and UTI.

Question 32.
“Authority can be delegated ,but not responsibility.” Explain.
Answer:
“Authority can be delegated ,but not responsibility.” This statement is explaining about importance of delegation.Delegation or Authority is a process of sharing of tasks and authority between a manager and his subordinates.Delegation of authority is defined by Allen in the following words, “Delegation is the process a manager follows in dividing the work assigned to him so that he performs that part which only he,because of his unique organisational placement ,can perform effectively,and so that he can get others to help him with what remains.”
The following are the advantages of delegation or authority :

(i) Reduces the workload of managers : Delegation of authority permits a manager to share his workload with his subordinates. By passing on some of his own work to the subordinates,the manager is able to concentrate on more important aspects of his work-When delegation or authority takes place at all levels of the organisation it facilitates proper division of managerial work and its assignment to all managers in a systematic manner.

(ii) Basis of superior – subordinate relations : Delegation is the process by which superior – subordinate relations among managers are established.The flow of authority from the top management to lower levels is directed and regulated by the process of delegation.

(iii) Improves managerial effectiveness : In the delegation process managers pass routine work to the subordinates so they are free to concentrate on other important matters.The main job of managers is to get the work done effectively and by delegating the authorities and responsibilities.

(iv) Motivates subordinates : In the delegation when the manager is sharing his responsibilities and authority with the subordinates it motivates the subordinates as they develop the feeling of belonging and trust which is shown to them by their superiors.

(v) Facilitates the development of managers : Delegation is a source of development of managers.lt opens up opportunities for managers to acquire leadership and other skills and competency.They are required to exercise theirauthority,to handle situations and to solve managerial problems.

(vi) Facilitiesorganisational growth : In the process of delegation when the managers are passing their responsibility and authority to the subordinates they keep in mind the qualification and capability of all the subordinates.

Question 33
Mention the different external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
Anorganisation must recruit employeesfromoutside, i.e. through external sources.The important external sources of recruitment are as given follow :

(i) Factory gate : For recruitment of semi – skilled and unskilled employees a notice is put at the factory gate specifying the requirement of various types of workers.Job seekers wait outside the factory gate in the hope of finding some employment.

(ii) Waiting list: Very often organisations prepare and maintain a waiting list of employees from the applications of those candidates who had applied but could not be selected.

(iii) Employees recommendations : A large number of organisations ask their present employees to recommend the names of suitable candidates as and when a vacancy arises.The employees feel happy to recommend the names of their relatives and friends and ask them to apply for the jobs which suit them.

(iv) Labour union recommendations : It is a common practice in some organisations to ask the labour union(s) leaders to recommend the names of suitable candidates for the vacancies to be filled in the organisation.The leaders feel happy to suggest the names of suitable candidates.

(v) Private placement agencies : These are of recent origin now a days reputed private placement agencies such as Tata Consultancy Services are doing commendable jobs in this field.The agencies maintain data bank of specialists in various fields – skilled ,semi – skilled and even unskilled employees.

(vi) Employment Exchanges : Employment Exchanges have been set up by the government in metropolitan and other big other cities.People seeking employment get registered with the employment Exchange nearest to their place of residence.

(vii) Media advertisement: By far advertisement in leading newspaper,magazines and journals is a widely used method of external recruitment for skilled and specialisedjobs.lt is very effective due to the wide circulation.

(viii) Collages,institutions and campus: Reputed and multinational companies are recruiting employees through campus recruitment’ at reputed business schools,colleges and particularly at 1.1.Ms. Reputed institutions have 100% placements of their students.