Shreya

Bihar Board 12th Maths Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 in English Medium

Section – I

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Full Marks: 100

Instructions for the candidates

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figure in the right-hand margin indicates full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as far as practicable.
4. 15 Minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper is divided into two sections. Section-A and Section-B.
6. In Section A, there are 1-50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with blue/black ball pen against the correct option on the OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/ Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet otherwise result will be invalid.
7. In section-B, there are 25 short answer type questions (each carrying 2 marks), out of which only 15 (fifteen) questions are to be answered. A part from this there is 08 Long Answer Type questions (each carrying 5 marks), out of which 4 questions are to be answered.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

There are 1 to 50 objective type questions with 4 options, choose the correct option which, is to be answered on OMR Sheet. (50 × 1 = 50)

Question 1.
If the function f : N → N defined as f(x) = 4x + 3, then f^-1(x) = _________
(a) 4x – 3
(b) \(\frac{4 x-3}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{x+3}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{x-3}{4}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{x-3}{4}\)

Question 2.
The set natural numbers defined, as the relation less than is
(a) only reflexive
(b) only symmetric
(c) equivalence
(d) only transitive
Answer:
(d) only transitive

Question 3.
The operation * defined as a* b such that a² + b² then (1*2) *5 is
(a) 3125
(b) 625
(c) 125
(d) 50
Answer:
(d) 50

Question 4.
If the function f : R → R defined as f(x) = \(\left(3-x^{3}\right)^{1 / 3}\) then fof(x) is
(a) \(x^{1 / 3}\)
(b) x³
(c) (3 – x³)
(d) x
Answer:
(d) x

Question 5.
\(\sin ^{-1}\left(\sin \frac{2 \pi}{3}\right)=\) = _______
(a) \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
(c) \(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)

Question 6.
tan^-1 √3 – cot^-1(-√3) = _______
(a) π
(b) 0
(c) 2√3
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 7.
\(\cos ^{-1}\left(\cos \frac{7 \pi}{6}\right)\) is equal to
(a) \(\frac{7 \pi}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)

Question 8.
A matrix A = [a_ij]_n×n is symmetric if
(a) a_ij = 0
(b) a_ij = -a_ji
(c) a_ij = a_ji
(d) a_ij = 1
Answer:
(c) a_ij = a_ji

Question 9.
\(\int { \frac { { sec }^{ 2 }x }{ { cosec }^{ 2 }x } } dx\quad =\) ___________
(a) x – tan x + c
(b) tan x + x + c
(c) tan x – x + c
(d) -tan x – x + c
Answer:
(c) tan x – x + c

Question 10.
\(\int \frac{\cos 2 x}{(\sin x+\cos x)^{2}} d x=\) _______
(a) \(\frac{1}{\sin x+\cos x}+c\)
(b) log (sinx + cosx) + c
(c) log |sinx – cosx| + c
(d) \(\frac{1}{(\sin x+\cos x)^{2}}+c\)
Answer:
(b) log (sinx + cosx) + c

Question 11.
q11
(a) \(\frac{-y}{x}\)
(b) \(\frac{y}{x}\)
(c) \(\frac{-x}{y}\)
(d) \(\frac{x}{y}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{-y}{x}\)

Question 12.
If √x + √y = 5 then \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = ? at (4, 9).
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{-3}{3}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 13.
\(\int \tan ^{2} \frac{x}{2} d x=\) __________
(a) \(\tan \frac{x}{2}-x+c\)
(b) \(\tan \frac{x}{2}+x+c\)
(c) \(2 \tan \frac{x}{2}+x+c\)
(d) \(2 \tan \frac{x}{2}-x+c\)
Answer:
(a) \(\tan \frac{x}{2}-x+c\)

Question 14.
qim 14
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(b) \(-\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(c) 0
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 15.
Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3 then |KA| is equal to.
(a) K|A|
(b) K² |A|
(c) K³ |A|
(d) 3K|A|
Answer:
(c) K³ |A|

Question 16.
If \(A=\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \\
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \\
a_{31} & a_{33} & a_{33}
\end{array}\right|\) and cofactor of a_ij is A_ij then which of following is the value of Δ
(a) a₁₁ A₃₁ + a₁₂ A₃₂ + a₁₃ A₃₃
(b) a₁₁ A₁₁ + a₁₂ A₂₁ + A₁₃ A₃₁
(c) a₂₁ A₁₁ + a₂₂ A₂₂ + a₂₃ A₁₃
(d) a₁₁ A₁₁ + a₂₁ A₂₁ + a₃₁ A₃₁
Answer:
(d) a₁₁ A₁₁ + a₂₁ A₂₁ + a₃₁ A₃₁

Question 17.

(a) Continuous
(b) Discontinuous
(c) Well defined
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Discontinuous

Question 18.
If y = log (log x) then the value of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) is:
(a) x log x
(b) \(\frac{1}{x \log x}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{\log x}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{x}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{x \log x}\)

Question 19.
If y = sec (tan^-1 x) Then \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) is equl to
(a) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\)
(b) \(\frac{-x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\)
(c) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\)

Question 20.
If f(x) = sin(x²) Then \(\frac{d f}{d x}\) is equal to
(a) 2x sin x²
(b) 2x cos x²
(c) 2cos x
(d) 2x sin x
Answer:
(b) 2x cos x²

Question 21.
The rate of change of the area of the circle with respect to r = 7 cm is
(a) 42 cm²/cm
(b) 44 cm²/cm
(c) 28 cm²/cm
(d) 22 cm²/cm
Answer:
(b) 44 cm²/cm

Question 22.
The function f(x) = x³ – 6x² + 12x – 18 is:
(a) Strictly decreases for each x ∈ R
(b) Strictly increasing ∀ x ∈ R
(c) Increasing in ] -∞, 0 [ and decreasing in [0, ∞[
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Strictly increasing ∀ x ∈ R

Question 23.
The total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is given by R (x) = 3x² + 36x + 5. The marginal revenue, when x = 15 is:
(a) Rs. 116
(b) Rs. 96
(c) Rs. 90
(d) Rs. 126
Answer:
(d) Rs. 126

Question 24.
What is the slope of the tangent to the curve y = x³ – x + 1 at the point whose x-coordinate is 2?
(a) 11
(b) 21
(c) 31
(d) 41
Answer:
(a) 11

Question 25.
\(\int \frac{10 x^{9}+10^{x} \log e^{10}}{x^{10}+10^{x}}\) is equal to
(a) 10^x – x¹⁰ + C
(b) 10^x + x¹⁰ + C
(c) (10^x – x¹⁰)^-1 + C
(d) log (10^x + x¹⁰) + C
Answer:
(d) log (10^x + x¹⁰) + C

Question 26.

Answer:
(b) \(\log \left|\frac{(x-2)^{2}}{x-1}\right|+C\)

Question 27.

(a) 2
(b) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
(c) 0
(d) -2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 28.
If f(a + b – x) = f(x) then \(\int_{a}^{b} x f(x) d x\) is equal to

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{a+b}{2} \int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x\)

Question 29.
Area lying in the first quadrant and bounded by the circle x² + y² = 4 and the lines x = 0, and x = 2 is:
(a) π
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:
(a) π

Question 30.
The value of \(\int \frac{\sin ^{2} x-\cos ^{2} x}{\sin ^{2} x \cos ^{2} x} d x\) is equal to
(a) tan x + cot x + C
(b) tan x + cosec x + C
(c) -tan x + cot x + C
(d) tan x + sec x + C
Answer:
(a) tan x + cot x + C

Question 31.
The value of \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \cos 2 x d x\) is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 32.
The degree of diff. eqn.

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 33.
The degree and order of the differential equation

(a) 4, 2
(b) 2, 4
(c) 3, 4
(d) 4, 3
Answer:
(b) 2, 4

Question 34.
The general solution of diff. eqn \(\frac{y d x-x d y}{y}=0\) is:
(a) xy = c
(b) x = cy²
(c) y = cx
(d) y = cx²
Answer:
(c) y = cx

Question 35.
The number of arbitrary constant in the solution of diff. eqn of fourth-order is
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 36.
The general solution of diff. eqn \(\frac{d y}{d x}=e^{x+y}\) is
(a) e^x + e^y = c
(b) e^x + e^-y = c
(c) e^-x + e^y = c
(d) e^-x + e^-y = c
Answer:
(b) e^x + e^-y = c

Question 37.
Let the vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) be such that \(|\vec{a}|=3\) and \(|\vec{b}|=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\), then \(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}\) is a unit vector if the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) is
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 38.
If \(\vec{a}=2 \hat{j}-5 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-\hat{k}\) Then
(a) \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}=0\)
(b) \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} \neq 0\)
(c) \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}=-9\)
(d) \(\vec{a}+\vec{b}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}=-9\)

Question 39.
l² + m² + n² is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 40.
The Dr’s of any line is 2, -1, -2 then dc’s is:
q40
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{3}, \frac{2}{3},-\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 41.
The direction ratios of the line \(\frac{x-5}{3}=\frac{y+4}{7}=\frac{z-6}{2}\) is:
(a) 3, 2, 7
(b) 3, 7, 2
(c) 2, 3, 7
(d) 7, 3, 2
Answer:
(b) 3, 7, 2

Question 42.
The lines with dr’s a₁, b₁, c₁ and a₂, b₂, c₂ are parallel if
(a) a₁a₂ – b₁b₂ – c₁c₂ = 0
(b) a₁a₂ + b₁b₂ + c₁c₂ = 0
(c) a₁b₁ + a₂b₂ + a₁b₂ = 0
(d) \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}=\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}=\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\)

Question 43.
The angle between the two lines with direction cosines are l₁, m₁, n₁ and l₂, m₂, n₂ is θ. Then θ is equal to
(a) l₁l₂ + m₁m₂ + n₁n₂
(b) l₁l₂ – m₁m₂ – n₁n₂
(c) l₁m₁n₁ + l₂m₂n₂
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) l₁l₂ + m₁m₂ + n₁n₂

Question 44.
Which of the following equations correponds to inequations ax + by ≥ c, ax + by > c, ax + by ≤ c and ax + by < c is:
(a) ax + by = c
(b) ax + by = 0
(c) bx + ay = c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) ax + by = c

Question 45.
Which of the following is non-negative constraints
(a) x ≤ 0, y ≤ 0
(b) x ≤ 0, y ≥ 0
(c) x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Question 46.
If P(A) = \(\frac{3}{8}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{2}\), P(A∩B) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), then P(A/B) = _______
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 47.
If A and B are two independent events then
(a) P(AB’) = P(A) P(B)
(b) P(AB’) = P(A) P(B’)
(c) P(AB’) = P(A’) + P(B)
(d) P(AB’) = P(A) + P(B’)
Answer:
(b) P(AB’) = P(A) P(B’)

Question 48.
If A and B are two envents such that P (A) = \(\frac{1}{3}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P (A∩B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\) thenP(A/B) is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
(d) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 49.
If P(A) = \(\frac{3}{8}\), P(B) = \(\frac{5}{8}\) and P(A∪B) = \(\frac{3}{4}\), then P(B/A) is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 50.
If A and B are two events such that P(A) + P(B) – P(A and B) = P(A) then
(a) \(P\left(\frac{B}{A}\right)=1\)
(b) \(P\left(\frac{B}{A}\right)=0\)
(c) \(P\left(\frac{A}{B}\right)=1\)
(d) \(P\left(\frac{A}{B}\right)=0\)
Answer:
(c) \(P\left(\frac{A}{B}\right)=1\)

Section – II

Time : 2 Hours 5 Minutes
Total Marks: 50

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Q. No. 1 to 25 are of Short Answer type carry of 2 marks each. Answer any 15 questions. (15 × 2 = 30)

Question 1.
If \(A=\left[\begin{array}{rr}
-1 & 2 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) and \(B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & -2 \\
1 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) suchthat 2A + B + X = 0, then find X.
Solution:
Given, 2A + B + X = 0 ⇒ X = -(2A + B)

Question 2.
Consider f : R → R given by f(x) = 4x + 3. show that f is invertible. Find the inverse of f also.
Solution:
Given f: R → R and f(x) = 4x + 3
f(x₁) = f(x₂)
or, 4x₁ + 3 = 4x₂ + 3
or, x₁ = x₂
f is one-one
Again, let y = 4x + 3
\(x=\frac{y-3}{4}\)
Each element in co-domain of y is a image of any one element in domain.
f is onto
since f is one-one and onto then f is invertible
Hence \(f^{-1}(x)=g(y)=\frac{y-3}{4}\)

Question 3.
Prove that

Solution:

Question 4.
For what value of x is:
\(\left[\begin{array}{lllll}
1 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 0 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 2
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
0 \\
2 \\
x
\end{array}\right]=0\)
Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:

Question 6.

Answer:

Question 7.

Answer:

Question 8.
If x = a(θ + sinθ), y = a(1 – cosθ), then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
Answer:

Question 9.
Find the point at which the tangent to the curve \(y=\sqrt{4 x-3}-1\) has its slope \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Solution:
Given curve \(y=\sqrt{4 x-3}-1\)
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get

Question 10.
If A = tan^-1 2, and B = tan^-1 3 then prove that C = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Solution:
Let A = tan^-1 2 = tan A = 2 and B = tan^-1 3 ⇒ tan B = 3

Question 11.
Using differential, find the approximate value of √25.3 up to three places of decimal.
Solution:
Let y = √x

Question 12.
Find the integral \(\frac{e^{\tan -1} x}{1+x^{2}}\)
Solution:

Question 13.
Integrate: \(\int \tan ^{4} x d x\)
Solution:

Question 14.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{e^{x}}{1+e^{x}} d x\)
Solution:

Question 15.
Find the area enclosed by the circle x² + y² = a²
Solution:
x² + y² = a²
⇒ y² = a² – x²
⇒ y = \(\sqrt{a^{2}-x^{2}}\)
Area enclosed by the circle = 4 × (Given curve, A-axis and ordinates x = 0, x = a)

Hence the area of a circle is πa² sq. units

Question 16.
Solve: y dx – x dy = xy dx
Solution:
y dx – x dy = xy dx
⇒ x dy = y (1 – x) dx

Question 17.
Solve: \(\frac{x d y}{d x}-y=x^{2}\)
Solution:

Question 18.
Find the value of λ, which the planes \(\vec{r} \cdot(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})=13\) and \(\vec{r} \cdot(\lambda \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-7 \hat{k})=9\) perpendiular to each other.
Solution:

Question 19.
Find the area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}=\hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+3 \hat{\mathrm{k}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{b}}=3 \hat{\mathbf{i}}-2 \hat{\mathbf{j}}+\hat{\mathbf{k}}\)
Solution:

Question 20.
Find the internally intercepts of the plane 2x + y – z = 5
Solution:
Given plane 2x + y – z = 5

Hence the intercepts of the plane are \(\frac{5}{2}\), 5 and -5 respectively

Question 21.
Find the shortest distance between the lines

Solution:
Let PQ be the distance between the lines AB and CD.
If direction cosines of PQ is l, m, n. then 3l – m + n = 0 and -3l + 2m + 4n,
Now, 3l – m + n = 0

Again, the coordinates of the point R and S on. the lines AB and CD are R(3, 8, -3) and (-3, -7, 6)
Now, PQ = Projection of RS

Question 22.
The probabilities of solving a problem by three students are \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{4}\); find the probability that the problem will be solved.
Solution:
Let A, B and C are the events for solving the problem by 1st, 2nd and 3rd students.

Question 23.

Solution:

Question 24.
Find the value of x, y and z if \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & 2 \\
5+z & x y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6 & 2 \\
5 & 8
\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:
Given, \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & 2 \\
5+z & x y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6 & 2 \\
5 & 8
\end{array}\right]\)
x + y = 6, 5 + z = 5, xy = 8
⇒ y = 6 – x
⇒ xy = x(6 – x) = 8
⇒ 6x – x² = 8
⇒ x² – 6x + 8 = 0
⇒ x² – 4x – 2x + 8 = 0
⇒ (x – 4) (x – 2) = 0
⇒ x – 4 = 0 or x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = 2, 4
y = 4, 2 and z = 0
Thus x = 2, 4, y = 4, 2, and z = 0

Question 25.
Prove that

Solution:

Long Answer Type Questions

Questions No. 26 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer any 4 questions. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 26.
A rectangular sheet of 45 cm by 24 cm is to be made into a box without top, by cutting off square from each corner and folding up the flaps to form the box. What should be the side of the square to be cut off so that the volume of the box is maximum.
Solution:
Let each side of the square cut-off from each comer be x cm.
Sides of the rectangular box are (45 – 2x), (24 – 2x) and x cm.
Then volume of the box.
V = (45 – 2x) (24 – 2x) (x) = 2x (45 – 2x) (12 – x) = 2 (2x³ – 69x² + 540x)
\(\frac{d V}{d x}\) = 2(6x² – 138x + 540) = 12(x² – 23x + 90)
For max. and min. value. \(\frac{d V}{d x}\) = 0
or 12(x² – 23x + 90) = 0

or, (x – 5) (x – 18) = 0
But x is not greater than 12.
x = 5
\(\frac{d^{2} V}{d x^{2}}\) = 12(2x – 23) = 12(10 – 23) = -156 = -ve [∵ x = 5]
Hence V is maximum at x = 5 i.e. square of sides 5 cm is cut off from.

Question 27.
Find the absolute maximum and minimum values of functions f given by f(x) = 2x³ – 15x² + 36x + 1 at [1, 5]
Solution:
f(x) = 2x³ – 5x² + 36x + 1
⇒ f'(x) = 6x² – 30x + 36
⇒ f(x) = 6(x² – 5x + 6) = 6(x – 3)(x – 2)
If f'(x) = 0 then x = 2, x = 3
Now, evaluate the value off at interval [1, 5] i.e. x = 1, x = 2 and x = 3
f(x) = 2x³ – 15x² + 36x + 1
⇒ f(1) = 2 – 15 + 36 + 1 = 39 – 15 = 24
⇒ f(2) = 2 × 2³ – 15 × 2² + 36 × 2 + 1 = 16 – 60 + 72 + 1 = 80 – 60 = 29
⇒ f(3) = 2 × 3³ – 15 × 3² + 36 × 3 + 1 = 54 – 135 + 108 + 1 = 163 – 135 = 28
⇒ f(5) = 2 × 5³ – 15 × 5² + 36 × 5 + 1 = 250 – 375 + 180 + 1 = 56
Thus the absolute maximum value of f on [1, 5] is 56 at x = 5 and minimum is 24 at x = 1

Question 28.
Find the area of the curve bounded by x² = 4y and the line x = 4y – 2.
Solution:
Given curve x² = 4y …(1 )
Which is an upward parabola with vertex (0, 0) and is symmetrical about y-axis and equation of the line.
x = 4y – 2 …(2)
Solving (1) and (2), we get,
(4y – 2)² = 4y
⇒ 16y² – 16y + 4 = 4y
⇒ 16y² – 20y + 4 = 0
⇒ 4y² – 5y + 1 = 0
⇒ (4y – 1) (y – 1) = 0
⇒ y = \(\frac{1}{4}\), 1
From(2), when y = \(\frac{1}{4}\), then x = 1 – 2 = -1
and when y = 1, then x = 4 – 2 = 2
The intersection of (1) and (2) is A(-1, \(\frac{1}{4}\)) and B (2, 1)
Clear from figure, shaded, region. OBDA be the required area.
Required Area = Area of region LOMBDA – Area of region LMBOA …(3)

Question 29.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2}(\sqrt{\tan x}+\sqrt{\cot x}) d x\)
Solution:

Question 30.
The two adjacent sides of parallelogram are \(\mathbf{2} \hat{\mathbf{i}}-\mathbf{4} \hat{\mathbf{j}}+\mathbf{5} \hat{\mathbf{k}}\) and \(\hat{\mathbf{i}}-\mathbf{2} \hat{\mathbf{j}}-\mathbf{3} \hat{\mathbf{k}}\). Find the unit vector parallel to its diagonal. Also find its area.
Solution:
Let the adjacent sides of a prallelogram are

Question 31.
Find the image of the point (1, 6, 3) in the line \(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z-2}{3}\)
Solution:
Let P (1, 6, 3) be any point and AB be the given line.
Draw perpendicular PM from P to AB such that PM = P’M, where P’ be the image of P.

Question 32.
Minimize Z = 200x + 500y subject to constraints; x + 2y ≥ 10, 3x + 4y ≤ 24, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
Solution:
Minimize Z = 200x + 500y
x + 2y ≥ 10 ⇒ x + 2y = 10 ……. (1)
3x + 4y ≤ 24 ⇒ 3x + 4y = 24 …….. (2)
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 ⇒ x = 0, y = 0 ……… (3)
First of all draw the graph of the equations (1) to (3) corrsponds to inequations.

On joining the points (10, 0), (0, 5) and (8, 0), (0, 6) we get two mutually lines which intersects at the point (4, 3). It is clear from figure shaded region ABC is feasible and bounded. The coordinates of the feasible region ABC are A (4, 3), B(0, 6) and C(0, 5)
Lastly, applying corner point method to find, the minimum value of objective function as follows.
Corner point – Z = 200x + 500y
(0, 5) ⇒ Z = 0 + 5000 × 5 = 2500
(4, 3) ⇒ Z = 200 × 4 + 500 × 3 = 2300
(0, 6) ⇒ Z = 200 × 0 + 500 × 6 = 3000
We see from the above table that the minimum value of Z is 2300 at the point (4, 3).
Thus minimum value of Z is 2300.

Question 33.
Solve the following LPP problem graphically: Maximize Z = 4x + y subject to constraints: x + y ≤ 50, 3x + y ≤ 90, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
Solution:
Maximize Z = 4x + y
Subject to constraints: x + y ≤ 50 ⇒ x + y = 50 …… (1)
3x + y ≤ 90 ⇒ 3x + y = 90 …… (2)
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 ⇒ x = 0, y = 0 ….. (3)
First of all draw the graph of the equations (1) to (3) corresponds to inequations. It is clear from the figure shaded region OABC. be the feasible region and is bounded. The co-ordinate of the point B obtain by solving equation (1) and (2).

It is clear from figure the co-ordinates of the comer points of the feasible region OABC are O(0, 0), A (30, 0), B (20, 30) and C(0, 50).
Lastly applying corner point method to find the maximum value of Z as follows:
Corner point – z = 4x + y
O(0, 5) ⇒ z = 4 × 0 + y
A(30, 3) ⇒ z = 4 × 0 + 0 = 0
B(20, 30) ⇒ z = 4 × 30 + 0 = 120
C(0, 50) ⇒ z = 4 × 20 + 30 = 110
We see from table that the maximum value of Z is 120 at the point A(30, 0).
Thus maximum value of Z is 120.

Bihar Board 12th Entrepreneurship Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Entrepreneurship Model Question Paper 1 in English Medium

Time: 3 Hours 15 Min
Marks: 70

Instructions for the candidates:

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
4. This question paper has two sections: Section – A and Section – B.
5. In Section – A, there are 35 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/ Liquid/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise, the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section – B, there are Non-objective type questions. There are 18 Short answer type questions, out of which any 10 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 6 Long answer type questions, out of which any 3 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 35 has four options provided out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (35 × 1 = 35)

Question 1.
The term ‘Fund’ as used in Fund Flow Analysis means:
(a) Cash only
(b) Current Assets
(c) Current Liability
(d) Excess of current Assets over Current Liabilities.
Answer:
(d) Excess of current Assets over Current Liabilities.

Question 2.
Networking capital means:
(a) C.A – C. L.
(b) C.A. + C.L.
(c) C. L. – C.A.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) C.A – C. L.

Question 3.
A. E. P. = _________
(a) \(\frac { FixedCost }{ \frac { P }{ V } Ratio }\)
(b) \(\frac { FixedCost }{ \frac { P }{ V } Ratio } \times 100\)
(c) \(\frac { \frac { P }{ V } Ratio }{ FixedCost }\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) \(\frac { FixedCost }{ \frac { P }{ V } Ratio } \times 100\)

Question 4.
Risk Capital Foundation was established in
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1986
(d) 1988
Answer:
(b) 1975

Question 5.
Capital Intensive technique is favoured due to:
(a) Rapid economic growth
(b) Social influence
(c) Increase in employment opportunities
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 6.
Management is an art of:
(a) doing work himself
(b) taking work from others
(c) both for doing work himself and taking work from others
(d) All
Answer:
(c) both for doing work himself and taking work from others

Question 7.
Out of the following which is the method of quality control?
(a) Inspection method
(b) Statistical Quality Control Method
(c) Both A and B above
(d) Neither A nor B above
Answer:
(c) Both A and B above

Question 8.
Dividend paid on cumulative preference share:
(a) In the year of profit
(b) In the year of loss
(c) In the year of profit or loss
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) In the year of profit

Question 9.
The best example of variable cost is:
(a) Interest on capital
(b) Material cost
(c) Wealth tax
(d) Rent
Answer:
(b) Material cost

Question 10.
Generally, diversification is classified in
(a) Two ways
(b) Three ways
(c) Four ways
(d) Five ways
Answer:
(c) Four ways

Question 11.
Is it necessary to give due consideration on internal resources
(a) Yes, it is necessary
(b) No, not necessary
(c) Necessary for external resources
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Yes, it is necessary

Question 12.
Incentives are not concerned with:
(a) Rebate
(b) Exemption from Tax
(c) Provision of seed capital
(d) Lump-sum payment
Answer:
(c) Provision of seed capital

Question 13.
Which of the following is known as Market Demand?
(a) Demand Forecasting
(b) Real Demand
(c) Supply
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Demand Forecasting

Question 14.
Which of the following factors are to be considered while selecting a product or service?
(a) Competition
(b) Cost of production
(c) Profit possibility
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 15.
Selection of an enterprise depends on:
(a) Sole Trading
(b) Right of Entrepreneur
(c) Self Ability of Entrepreneur
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 16.
An entrepreneur prefers which form of an organization if production is to be undertaken on a small scale basis?
(a) Sole Trader
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sole Trader

Question 17.
Project identification deals with:
(a) Viable Product idea
(b) Logical opportunity
(c) Effective demand
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Viable Product idea

Question 18.
The techno-economic analysis deals with the identification of the
(a) Supply potential
(b) Demand potential
(c) Export potential
(d) Import potential
Answer:
(b) Demand potential

Question 19.
Project appraisal is an/a
(a) Export Analysis
(b) Expert Analysis
(c) Profitability Analysis
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Profitability Analysis

Question 20.
Various public utility undertaking has to invest heavily in:
(a) Current Assets
(b) Fixed Assets
(c) Fictitious Assets
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Fixed Assets

Question 21.
Pay-back period deals with:
(a) The period required for-profit earning process
(b) The period required for the cost of investment recovery
(c) The period required for fixed cost recovery
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The period required for the cost of investment recovery

Question 22.
The project life cycle is not concerned with the following:
(a) Pre-investment stage
(b) Constructive stage
(c) Normalisation stage
(d) Stabilisation stage
Answer:
(d) Stabilisation stage

Question 23.
Which of the following is the main problem connected with business?
(a) Profit
(b) money
(c) Sales
(d) Risk Management
Answer:
(d) Risk Management

Question 24.
What creates perfection in .the market which ultimately increases the volume of sales & profit?
(a) Innovation
(b) Promotion
(c) Marketing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Marketing

Question 25.
Short-term forecast involves a period of how many months?
(a) 12 months
(b) 24 months
(c) 18 months
(d) 36 months
Answer:
(a) 12 months

Question 26.
Business Regulatory framework is concerned with what
(a) Direction of Business
(b) Volume of Business
(c) Regulation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Volume of Business

Question 27.
The product which is more in demand are more
(a) Less profitable
(b) Possible
(c) More profitable
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More profitable

Question 28.
Out of the following formulating of the general plan of a business depends?
(a) Project Report
(b) Plant and Product Planning
(c) Marketing Planning
(d) Financial Planning
Answer:
(d) Financial Planning

Question 29.
What break-even point shows:
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Neither Profit nor Loss
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Neither Profit nor Loss

Question 30.
The best example of Fixed cost is:
(a) Interest on capital
(b) Material cost
(c) Wealth Tax
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Interest on capital

Question 31.
What is the thing that enterprise do? The paths they follow and the decision they take in order to reach certain points and levels of success:
(a) Production
(b) Distribution
(c) Marketing
(d) Strategies
Answer:
(d) Strategies

Question 32.
Out of the following, what is essential to study in the feasibility study?
(a) Cost
(b) Price
(c) Operation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 33.
What is included in the nature of marketing?
(a) Product Planning
(b) Classification of product
(c) Consumer
(d) Customer
Answer:
(c) Consumer

Question 34.
Social behaviour is not concerned with:
(a) Production of goods for public
(b) Avoidance of unethical behaviour
(c) Fulfilment of social obligations.
(d) Profit earning process
Answer:
(d) Profit earning process

Question 35.
Business opportunity relates to:
(a) Commercially feasible project
(b) Personal feasible projects
(c) Neither A nor B above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Commercially feasible project

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 18 are short answer type. Answer any 10 questions. Each question carries 2 marks. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 1.
Why is entrepreneurship regarded as a creative activity?
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is creative in the sense that it involves the creation of value. By combining the various factors of production, entrepreneurs produce goods and services that meet the needs and wants of society. Every entrepreneurial act results in income and wealth generation. Even when innovations destroy the existing industries.

Entrepreneurship is creative also in the sense that it involves innovation introduction of new products, the discovery of new market and sources of supply of inputs, technological break thoughts as well as the introduction of newer organisational forms for doing things better, cheaper, faster and in the present context, in a manner that causes the least harm to the environment. It is possible that entrepreneurs in developing countries may not be pioneering innovative in introducing path-breaking, radical innovations.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Micro Environment?
Answer:
The microenvironment is the first pillar to build a business empire. All marketing plans, strategies and objectives are carried out through these components. It is, therefore, the executive arm of business where the practical implementation of ideas, thoughts, and concepts are done and based on the responses of these components, a business either moves forward or may step back.

Question 3.
What do you mean by market environment?
Answer:
Marketing Environment is the combination of external and internal factors and forces which affect the company’s ability to establish a relationship and serve its customers. The marketing environment of a business consists of an internal and external environment.

Question 4.
What is the object of project appraisal?
Answer:

• To extract relevant information for determining the success or failure of a project.
• To apply standard yardsticks for determining the rate of success or failure of a project.
• To determine the expected costs and benefits of the projects.
• To arrive at specific conclusions regarding the project.

Question 5.
What is factoring?
Answer:
Factoring is a transaction in which a business sells its invoices, or receivables, to a third-party financial company known as a “Factor”.
Factoring is known in some industries as “accounts receivables financing”.

Question 6.
Give the definitions of Fund Flow Statement.
Answer:
A fund flow statement is a statement prepared to indicate the increase in the cash resources and the utilisation of such resources of business during the accounting period.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Ratio Analysis?
Answer:
Ratio analysis is the process of determining and interpreting numerical relationships based on financial statements. A ratio is a statical yardstick that provides a measure of the relationship between variables or figures. This relationship can be expressed as a percent.

Question 8.
How is break-even point determined?
Answer:
Break-even analysis related to the study of cost and return investment in relation to the sales of a business unit. That point or level of sales at which the business makes no profit and no loss is termed as the break-even point. Break-even point can be applied from two viewpoints- Narrow viewpoint and broad viewpoint, from the narrow viewpoint break-even analysis is a technique which determines that level of work at which the total return is equal to total expenditure. That is why this is known as the point of no profit no loss.
Break-point is the point at which the following characteristics are observed:

• The firm is neither earning any profit nor undergoing any loss i.e. it is in a state of no profit no loss.
• The total return of the firm is equal to the total cost.
• Amount of contribution (Sales-variable cost is) equal to the fixed cost.

Because of the above characteristics of the break-even point, it is also known as ‘Equilibrium point’ or ‘balancing point’ ore ‘critical point’.

Question 9.
Who is an Entrepreneur?
Answer:
The term ‘entrepreneur’ was first introduced in economics by the early 18th-century French economist Richard Cantillon. The entrepreneur as the agent who buys means production at certain prices in order to sell the produce at uncertain prices in the future. “ Since then a perusal of the usage of the term in economics shows, that entrepreneurship implies risk uncertainty bearing coordination of productive resources; introduction of innovation; and the provision of capital.

Question 10.
State the two objectives of identification of business opportunities.
Answer:
Following are the objectives of identifying business opportunities:

• Identify the sources of business ideas.
• Explain methods for generating business ideas.
• Identify various entrepreneurial opportunities.
• Understand the nature of the occupational and geographical mobility of entrepreneurs.

Question 11.
Give any two objectives of environmental scanning.
Answer:
Two objectives of environment scanning are mention below.

• Environmental scanning is the process of gathering information about the event and their relationship within an organisation’s internal and external environments.
• Environmental scanning is to help management determine the future direction of the organisation.

Question 12.
Mention any two objects of the project report.
Answer:
Two objectives of project report are following.

• To evaluation of environment opportunity.
• It is necessary to present the report for taking financial help.

Question 13.
What do you’re mean by the cycle of working capital?
Answer:
Availability of enough working capital is indicative of liquidity of business and capacity to make prompts payment. Working capital is needed for making payment of day to day expenditure for meeting current liabilities and for availing benefit of cash discount.

Question 14.
Why time boundness is essential in a project?
Answer:
Project is a written account of various activities undertaken by a firm or entrepreneurs and their technical, commercial and social feasibilities. Project is made after analysis of essential document therefore there is a time limit for making project because of the project is made for particulars time and subject.

Question 15.
What is the marketing mix?
Answer:
Marketing mix implies a combination of all marking elements or ingredients so that the objective of the enterprise may be realised. The marketing mix is the appointment of effort the combination the designing and the integration of the elements of marketing into a programme or mix which on the basis of the marketing forces will best achieve the objectives of an enterprise at a given time.

Question 16.
List any two problems faced by first-generation entrepreneurs?
Answer:
List of problems faced by first-generation entrepreneurs.

• Business ideas issues.
• Lack of finance.
• Inability to market their business.
• Not knowing how to plan the business.
• Legal question.

Question 17.
What do you mean by market assessment?
Answer:
Market Assessment: Goods are produced and facilitate for providing services are created in anticipation of their demand the ultimate aim of these activities is that these reach these for whose these are meant. The commodities are needed for consumption and used by the ultimate consumers. The services are utilized by whose Who was want to derive satisfaction out of them.

Question 18.
What is market observation?
Answer:
Market observation is a market research techniques in which highly trained researchers generally watch how people or consumers behave and interact in the market under natural conditions. It is designed to give precisely detailed and actual information on what consumers do as niche.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question No. 19 to 24 are long answer type. Answer any 3 questions. Each question carries 5 marks. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 19.
Why the environmental study is essential for an entrepreneur?
Answer:
The process of environmental scanning and analysis is very important to an entrepreneur. The evaluation of the existing changing circumstances the forecasting and the consequent impacts need to be assessed by an entrepreneur prior to determining his policies and planning and their successful implementation. It is essential to evaluate and analyse the consequences of the changing business environment prior to giving a tangible shape to the planning and policies.

The technical innovation, new social values, problems of the community, product – market conditions etc. Must be subjected to study which is instrumental in converting strategies and planning into reality. The competitive environment and its consideration is also an integral part of environmental scanning. To plan or conceive the counter-strategies in view of the competitive threats, the environmental study and analysis is the pre-requisite in this regard by a close study and a survey of the competitive threats, the environmental.

Question 20.
How would you execute the set up of an enterprise?
Answer:
The study of these five constituents is essential for the emergence of an enterprise.

• Labour or men: In all the resources of production, the ingredient of labour is the most mobilising element that stimulates all other factors and turns even the most useless thing into a useful one.
• Raw material: If the enterprise is production oriented a prior arrangement should be emphasised with regard to availability, type, cost/price and regular supply of the raw materials.
• Machine: Whatever be the scale of the enterprise whether big or small, machines are required in either case.
• Money: Money/capital is the lifeblood of an enterprise without which the establishment is an inconceivable presumption. The capital in the long and short term and its amount and the capital resources are a pre-emptive requirements
• Market: A prior estimate is to be formed in terms of the market-consumption before the establishment of the enterprise.
• Place: It is also an important aspect and be decided where the enterprise should be set up.

Question 21.
What problems should be properly considered in the expansion of a business enterprise? Elucidate.
Answer:
(i) Cash flow management: Cash flow problems are the second most common reason why small businesses go but according to research from CB Insights. Owners have to spend money to make money during a growth period, but this concept can quickly get out of control and leave you in a precarious position.

(ii) Responding to the competition: A funny thing happens when your company is successful- others recognize the opportunity and enter the industry. Many small business owners are unprepared for the realities of fierce competition, and they quickly lose their way in an attempt to respond.

(iii) Nurturing a great company culture: Your company culture is affected by everyone involved with your organization. As you grow and more people come into your company’s orbit, it becomes more difficult to exert control over your culture and you run the risk of having it drailed.

(iv) Learning when to delegate and when to get involved: There are times when entrepreneurs need to get personally involved in specific decisions, such as big – picture strategic planning and hiring for key positions. Then there are times where it is important to delegate and trust that your managers will make the best decision for their team and the company.

(v) Keeping up with market changes: If your company operates in a sector that experiences frequent upheaval, you have to be prepared for constant change. Internalize the idea that disruption is the new normal and work on training your employees to be agile in the face of uncertainty.

(vi) Deciding when to abandon a strategy: Sometimes marketing channels that seemed full of potential don’t pan out and new product lines don’t catch on as anticipated failures are an important part of business growth and owners must train themselves to recognize where they occur, divert resources accordingly and learn from those mistakes.

Question 22.
Describe the factors affecting working capital.
Answer:
Factors affecting the working capital:
There are the following factors affecting the working capital as:
(i) Nature and size of Business: The working capital depends on the nature of the business to a great extent. If a business is engaged in the production process more working capital will be required on other hand business firms engaged in trade activities will ‘require less working’ capital.

(ii) Business cycles: The need for working capital keeps on increasing or decreasing according to the business cycle. During Boom periods the businessman tries to keep the maximum possible stock of goods in order to escape from the price increase.

(iii) Term of Buying & Selling: If businessman buy the necessary material for cash he requires more working capital. If the business unit has the policy of credit sales, more working capital will be required.

(iv) Duration of Production: The amount of working capital also depends upon the time taken in the manufacturing of a product. If the time required for the manufacture of the product is more, more working capital is needed to be.

(v) Volume & Procurement of Raw Material: If the amount to be spent on raw material is more in total investment more working capital will be required.

(vi) Manual Vs Automation: If a business unit uses automatic machines for production less working capital will be required. If the production is labour oriented like the workers engaged in tea, coffee, rubber etc. More working capital will be required.

(vii) form of Taxation: Government policy of taxation also influences the need for working capital more capital will be required if all taxes are to be paid in advance, otherwise, the need will be less.

(viii) Seasonal goods: If business units are engaged in such goods in which seasonal conditions play an important role need for working capital will be felt according to seasonal requirements.

(ix) The intensity of competition: If the market competition is intense, more amount of working capital is required as a competitive firm has to keep huge quantities of a long-range of products.

(x) Business growth: If a business is expanding it requires more money for raw materials wages etc.

Question 23.
What are the factors affecting the identification of business opportunities?
Answer:
Responsibilities of each entrepreneur of the environment are any kind of tampering with the environment in terms of filing, pollution, contamination, etc. is a serious offence which is causing great harm to the present generation. In assertion, it is raising a question mark on the fate of the coming generation. No doubt, the industrial units do cause pollution, more or less, to the environment, and it is the prime responsibility of an entrepreneur not to harm the environment in any way. The industrial waste, raw residual, etc., must not be thrown into the water, its right use should be encouraged. Personal profit should not be the sole consideration here to the extent that the environment is polluted. The government is very serious about it and does not permit, even then an entrepreneur ought to be considerate at his own in this regard.

Question 24.
Explain the meaning, definition and objective of Financial Management.
Answer:
The financial manager in order to achieve the objectives of financial management performs many functions:
(i) Estimating the financial requirements: The financial manager has to estimate the financial requirements both for long and short periods. The long term financial needs means for procuring fixed assets and part of current assets and short term requirements are meant for providing the current assets.

(ii) The decision about capital structure: After estimating the longterm financial requirements the next step is to decide about the sources from where these funds would be raised. The financial manager explores and assesses the various long-term sources in the light of requirements of the enterprise and then decides what specific sources to tap and low much to raise form each of these in the overall interest of the organisation.

(iii) Dividend Decision: It is for the finance manager to make suggestions in respect of dividend payment. He looks into the trends of earnings, share market prices the funds required for future growth, the cash flow situation, etc and recommends to the top management how much of earnings should be earmarked for payment of dividend and how much should be retained in the business.

(iv) Cash management: The finance manager has to ensure that adequate cash is available for various purposes with minimum cost, that the rate of cash inflow is accelerated and that of cash outflow decelerated, that suitable arrangements exit for meeting situation of foreseen or unforeseen shortage of cash and that adequate steps are taken to keep at the bare minimum level cash lying idle with the cashier and or at the bank.

(v) Report with investors: Many parties like financial institutions, banks, underwriters, public etc. Invest money in the organisation, the finance manager establishes close links with them, supplies them the necessary information and negotiates to get financial assistance from them.

Bihar Board 12th Maths Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 12th Maths Objective Answers Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Question 1.

Answer:
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{6}\)

Question 2.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)

Question 3.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 5.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)

Question 6.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)

Question 7.

Answer:
(a) \(\tan ^{2}\left(\frac{\alpha}{2}\right)\)

Question 8.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{6}{17}\)

Question 9.
If tan^-1 (x – 1) + tan^-1 x + tan^-1 (x + 1) = tan^-1 3x, then the values of x are
(a) \(\pm \frac{1}{2}\)
(b) 0, \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) 0, \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) 0, \(\pm \frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) 0, \(\pm \frac{1}{2}\)

Question 10.
If 6sin^-1 (x² – 6x + 8.5) = π, then x is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 11.
3 tan^-1 a is equal to

Answer:
(d) \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{3 a-a^{3}}{1-3 a^{2}}\right)\)

Question 12.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 13.
The equation 2cos^-1 x + sin^-1 x = \(\frac{11 \pi}{6}\) has
(a) no solution
(b) only one solution
(c) two solutions
(d) three solutions
Answer:
(a) no solution

Question 14.

Answer:
(d) x

Question 15.
If tan^-1 2x + tan^-1 3x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\), then x is
(a) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
(b) 1
(c) (\(\frac{1}{6}\), -1)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 16.

Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{x^{2}+1}{x^{2}+2}}\)

Question 17.

Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt{a b}\)

Question 18.
If tan^-1 x – tan^-1 y = tan^-1 A, then A is equal to
(a) x – y
(b) x + y
(c) \(\frac{x-y}{1+x y}\)
(d) \(\frac{x+y}{1-x y}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{x-y}{1+x y}\)

Question 19.

Answer:
(c) \(\pm \sqrt{\frac{5}{2}}\)

Question 20.
The value of cot^-1 9 + cosec^-1(\(\frac{\sqrt{41}}{4}\)) is given by
(a) 0
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(c) tan^-1 2
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 21.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{6}{17}\)

Question 22.

Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 23.

Answer:
(b) 0

Question 24.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \leq x \leq 1\)

Question 25.
cos^-1[cos(2cot^-1(√2 – 1))] = ______
(a) √2 – 1
(b) 1 + √2
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(d) \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)

Question 26.
The range of sin^-1 x + cos^-1 x + tan^-1 x is
(a) [0, π]
(b) \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{3 \pi}{4}\right]\)
(c) (0, π)
(d) \(\left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\)
Answer:
(b) \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{3 \pi}{4}\right]\)

Question 27.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 28.
Find the value of sec² (tan^-1 2) + cosec² (cot^-1 3)
(a) 12
(b) 5
(c) 15
(d) 9
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 29.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{2}{x}\)

Question 30.
The equation sin^-1 x – cos^-1 x = cos^-1(\(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)) has
(a) unique solution
(b) no solution
(c) infinitely many solution
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) unique solution

Question 31.
Solve for x : {xcos(cot^-1 x) + sin(cot^-1 x)}² = \(\frac{51}{50}\)
(a) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{5 \sqrt{2}}\)
(c) 2√2
(d) 5√2
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{5 \sqrt{2}}\)

Question 32.

Answer:
(c) tan^-1(15)

Question 33.

Answer:
(b) \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{76}}\)

Question 34.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 35.
If sin^-1(x² – 7x + 12) = nπ, ∀ n ∈ I, then x =
(a) -2
(b) 4
(c) -3
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 36.
If cos^-1 x + sin^-1 x = π, then the value of x is
(a) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

Question 37.
If sin^-1 x – cos^-1 x = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\), then x =
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(c) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) \(-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

Question 38.
If tan^-1 (cot θ) = 2θ, then θ is equal to
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)

Question 39.
cot(\(\frac{\pi}{4}\) – 2cot^-1 3) =
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) 7

Question 40.
If tan^-1 3 + tan^-1 x = tan^-1 8, then x =
(a) 5
(b) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{5}{14}\)
(d) \(\frac{14}{5}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 41.

Answer:
(d) \(-\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 42.
sin^-1 (1 – x) – 2sin^-1 x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(a) 0
(b) 1/2
(c) 0, 1/2
(d) -1/2
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 43.
2tan^-1(cos x) = tan^-1(2cosec x)
(a) 0
(b) π/3
(c) π/4
(d) π/2
Answer:
(c) π/4

Question 44.

Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{x^{2}+1}{x^{2}+2}}\)

Question 45.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{3 \pi}{5}\)

Question 46.
The domain of the function defind by f(x) = \(\sin ^{-1} \sqrt{x-1}\) is
(a) [1, 2]
(b) [-1, 1]
(c) [0, 1]
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) [1, 2]

Question 47.
The value of sin (2tan^-1 (0.75)) is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1.5
(c) 0.96
(d) sin 1.5
Answer:
(c) 0.96

Question 48.
The value of expression 2 sec^-1 2 + sin^-1(\(\frac{1}{2}\))
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)
(c) \(\frac{7 \pi}{6}\)
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{5 \pi}{6}\)

Question 49.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 50.
The value of the expression \(\tan \left(\frac{1}{2} \cos ^{-1} \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
(a) 2 + √5
(b) √5 – 2
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}+2}{2}\)
(d) 5 + √2
Answer:
(b) √5 – 2

Question 51.

Answer:
(a) 4tan^-1 x

Question 52.
The number of real solutions of the equation is

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) 2

Bihar Board Class 9th English Objective Questions and Answers Key 2019, 2020, 2021 Pdf free download.

Bihar Board 9th Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 9th English Objective Questions and Answers Key 2020-2021 Pdf Download

Bihar Board 9th English Objective Questions and Answers Panorama Part 1

Panorama English Book Prose Section

• Chapter 1 Dharam Juddha
• Chapter 2 Yayati
• Chapter 3 A Silent Revolution
• Chapter 4 Too Many People, Too Few Trees
• Chapter 5 Echo and Narcissus
• Chapter 6 The Shehnai of Bismillah Khan
• Chapter 7 Kathmandu
• Chapter 8 My Childhood
• Chapter 9 The Gift of The Magi

Panorama English Book Poetry Section

• Poem 1 The Grand Mother
• Poem 2 On His Blindness
• Poem 3 Blow, Blow, Thou Winter Wind
• Poem 4 To Daffodils
• Poem 5 Sound
• Poem 6 Self Introduction
• Poem 7 I am Like Grass
• Poem 8 Abraham Lincoln’s Letter to his Son’s Teacher

Bihar Board Class 9th English Objective Answers Panorama English Reader Part 1

• Chapter 1 I’m going to Dance Again
• Chapter 2 Scaling Great Heights
• Chapter 3 Saint Kabir
• Chapter 4 The Eyes are not Here
• Chapter 5 Ismat Chughtai : A Lady with a Difference
• Chapter 6 The Accidental Tourist
• Chapter 7 Saint Ravidas
• Chapter 8 Bharathipura
• Bihar Board 9th English Objective Model Set 1
• Bihar Board 9th English Objective Model Set 2

Bihar Board Class 9th Sanskrit Objective Questions and Answers Key 2019, 2020, 2021 Pdf free download in Hindi Medium and English Medium.

Bihar Board 9th Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 9th Sanskrit Objective Questions and Answers Key 2020-2021 Pdf Download

Bihar Board 9th Sanskrit Objective Answers

संस्कृत पीयूषम् भाग 1

• Chapter 1 ईशस्तुति:
• Chapter 2 लोभविष्टः चक्रधरः
• Chapter 3 यक्ष-युधिष्ठिर संवाद
• Chapter 4 चत्वारो वेदाः
• Chapter 5 संस्कृतस्य महिमा
• Chapter 6 संस्कृतसाहित्ये पर्यावरणम्
• Chapter 7 ज्ञानं भारः क्रियां विना
• Chapter 8 नीतिपधानिः
• Chapter 9 बिहारस्य संस्कृतिकं वैभवम्
• Chapter 10 ईद-महोत्सवः
• Chapter 11 ग्राम्यजीवनम्
• Chapter 12 वीर कूँवर सिंहः
• Chapter 13 किशोराणां मनोविज्ञानम्
• Chapter 14 राष्ट्रबोधः
• Chapter 15 विश्ववन्दिता वैशाली

संस्कृत पीयूषम् द्रुतयपाठय भाग 1 (अनुपूरक पुस्तक)

Bihar Board 9th Sanskrit Grammar Objective Answers

• व्याकरण प्रकरणम्
• कारक प्रकरण एवं विभक्ति
• उपसर्ग प्रकरण
• प्रत्यय प्रकरण
• सन्धि प्रकरण
• समास प्रकरण
• Bihar Board 9th Sanskrit Objective Model Set 1
• Bihar Board 9th Sanskrit Objective Model Set 2

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Full Marks: 100

Instructions for the candidates

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as for as practicable.
4. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper has two sections: Section – A and Section – B.
6. In Section – A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise, the result will be treated as invalid.
7. In Section – B there are Non-objective type questions. There are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 8 Long answer type questions, out of which any 4 of them are to answer. Each question carries 5 marks.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 50 have four options, out of which only one is correct, you have to mark the correct option on the OMR Sheet. (50 × 1 = 50)

Question 1.
Income & Expenditure Account is
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Nominal A/c

Question 2.
Legacy should be treated as
(a) liability
(b) capital receipt
(c) revenue receipt
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) liability

Question 3.
Specific donation is
(a) Capital Receipt
(b) Revenue Receipt
(c) Assets
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Capital Receipt

Question 4.
Subscriptions received by an organisation is
(a) Capital Receipt
(b) Revenue Receipt
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Revenue Receipt

Question 5.
Current Account is
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Personal A/c

Question 6.
Making partnership agreement is
(a) compulsory
(b) voluntary
(c) partly compulsory
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) compulsory

Question 7.
For the firm interest on partner’s drawing is a/an
(a) expense
(b) income
(c) loss
(d) receipt
Answer:
(b) income

Question 8.
In the partnership firm, profit and loss are shared
(a) equally
(b) ratio of capital
(c) according to agreement
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) according to agreement

Question 9.
P/L Appropriation A/c is prepared
(a) for reserve fund
(b) for net profit
(c) for divisible profit
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) for divisible profit

Question 10.
Interest on advance given to the firm is
(a) an appropriation
(b) profit
(c) charge
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) charge

Question 11.
The excess of average profit over the normal profit is called
(a) super profit
(b) Fixed profit
(c) Abnormal profit
(d) normal profit
Answer:
(a) super profit

Question 12.
The monetary value of the reputation of the business is called
(a) goodwill
(b) surplus
(c) abnormal profit
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) goodwill

Question 13.
Profit or loss on revaluation is borne by
(a) old partners
(b) new partners
(c) all partners
(d) only two
Answer:
(a) old partners

Question 14.
Excess of the credit side over the debit side of Revaluation Account is
(a) profit
(b) loss
(c) receipt
(d) expense
Answer:
(a) profit

Question 15.
The opening balance of Partner’s Capital A/c is credited with
(a) interest on capital
(b) interest in drawing
(c) drawing
(d) share in loss
Answer:
(a) interest on capital

Question 16.
Share of goodwill brought in cash by the new partner is called
(a) Assets
(b) Profit
(c) Premium
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Premium

Question 17.
On the retirement of a partner, the full amount of goodwill is credited to the capital accounts of
(a) retiring partner
(b) remaining partners
(c) all partners
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 18.
Gaining Ratio is calculated
(a) at the time of admission
(b) at the time of retirement
(c) on the dissolution
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) at the time of retirement

Question 19.
Profit & Loss on Revaluation at the time of retirement is shared by
(a) remaining partners
(b) all partners
(c) new partners
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) remaining partners

Question 20.
A, B and C are partners sharing profit & loss in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. A retires. The gaining ratio is
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 5 : 2
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 5 : 2

Question 21.
The amount due to the deceased partner is paid to his
(a) Father
(b) Friend
(c) Wife
(d) Executors
Answer:
(d) Executors

Question 22.
On the death of a partner in a firm final payment are made to
(a) Capital A/c
(b) Executor A/c
(c) Current A/c
(d) Loan A/c
Answer:
(b) Executor A/c

Question 23.
The executors of a deceased partner will be paid interest on the amount from the date of death of the partner at
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) 7% p.a.
(d) 8% p.a.
Answer:
(b) 6% p.a.

Question 24.
Joint life policy of the partners is an _______ account.
(a) nominal A/c
(b) personal A/c
(c) liability
(d) goodwill.
Answer:
(b) personal A/c

Question 25.
Revaluation A/c is prepared at the time of
(a) Admission
(b) Retirement
(c) Death
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 26.
Payment of credit balance of partners Capital Account at the time dissolution of a firm is made to
(a) partners
(b) firm
(c) wife
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) partners

Question 27.
Realisation expenses are recorded in which side of Realisation Account?
(a) Liabilities
(b) Assets
(c) Debit
(d) Credit
Answer:
(b) Assets

Question 28.
At the time of dissolution of the firm book value of assets is recorded in which side of the Realisation A/c?
(a) Debit side
(b) Credit side
(c) Liabilities side
(d) Assets side
Answer:
(a) Debit side

Question 29.
Realisation Account is a
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Nominal A/c
(c) Real A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Nominal A/c

Question 30.
On the dissolution of a firm, Partners Capital A/c is closed through
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Drawing A/c
(c) Bank A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Bank A/c

Question 31.
Expenses on the dissolution of a firm is called
(a) Realisation expense
(b) Legal expense
(c) Loss expenses
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Realisation expense

Question 32.
A firm can be voluntarily dissolved by the partners
(a) on majority’s decision
(b) on \(\frac{3}{4}\) of the member’s decision
(c) on \(\frac{1}{2}\) of the member’s decision
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) on \(\frac{3}{4}\) of the member’s decision

Question 33.
On the firm’s dissolution which one of the following A/c should be prepared at the last?
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Cash A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) Loan A/c
Answer:
(a) Realisation A/c

Question 34.
On dissolution, Goodwill A/c is transferred to
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Drawing A/c
(d) Loan A/c
Answer:
(a) Realisation A/c

Question 35.
At the time of dissolution of a firm. Balance of general reserve shown in the Balance sheet is credited to
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Creditors A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) Profit & Loan A/c
Answer:
(c) Capital A/c

Question 36.
Cash balance shown in the Balance Sheet is shown on the dissolution of the firm in
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Cash A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Cash A/c

Question 37.
On dissolution of a firm. Bank overdraft is transferred to
(a) Cash A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Realisation A/c
(d) Capital A/c
Answer:
(c) Realisation A/c

Question 38.
On dissolution of a firm, Partners Loan A/c is transferred to
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Current A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Current A/c

Question 39.
Shares may be issued
(a) at par
(b) at premium
(c) at discount
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 40.
Equity shareholders are _______ of the company.
(a) Bankers
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) Owners
Answer:
(d) Owners

Question 41.
Money received from a dead man’s legacy is called
(a) Legacy
(b) Honorarium
(c) Donation
(d) Subscription
Answer:
(a) Legacy

Question 42.
Payment of honorarium to the secretary is:
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Cash expenditure
(d) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
Answer:
(b) Revenue expenditure

Question 43.
Interest is to be given a partner to the firm in the absence of partnership deed.
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 8%
(d) 9%
Answer:
(b) 6%

Question 44.
Interest on capital will be given to the partners in the absence of a partnership agreement
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 8 %
(d) nome of these
Answer:
(d) nome of these

Question 45.
The current account is:
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Personal A/c

Question 46.
Drawings of the partners debited to:
(a) Partners capital A/c
(b) Profit & Loss A/c
(c) P & L appropriate A/c
(d) Revaluation A/c
Answer:
(a) Partners capital A/c

Question 47.
Interest on parter’s capital is to be credited
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Realisation A/c
(c) Partners Capital A/c
(d) Revaluation A/c
Answer:
(c) Partners Capital A/c

Question 48.
Excess of real profit on general profit is called
(a) Super profit
(b) Definite profit
(c) Abnormal profit
(d) General profit
Answer:
(a) Super profit

Question 49.
A and B are the partners of profit is divided in 3 : 1. They give a \(\frac{1}{4}\) part of profit in future and admitted in. New profit-distribution ratio is:
(a) Explanation/Working
(b) A \frac{81}{16}: B \frac{4}{16}: C \frac{4}{16}
(c) \(A \frac{10}{16}: B \frac{2}{16}: C \frac{4}{16}\)
(d) \(A \frac{8}{16}: B \frac{9}{16}: C \frac{10}{16}\)
Answer:
(a) Explanation/Working

Question 50.
X and Y are partners of profit into 3 : 2. Z become partner for \(\frac{1}{5}\) share Z takes from X \(\frac{3}{20}\) and from Y \(\frac{1}{20}\). Then new profit ratio is:
(a) 9 : 7 : 4
(b) 8 : 8 : 4
(c) 6 : 10 : 4
(d) 10 : 6 : 4
Answer:
(a) 9 : 7 : 4

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 out of them. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 × 2 = 30)

Question 1.
What Journal entry will be recorded for the amount payable to a deceased partner?
Answer:
Profit and Loss of Suspense A/c … Dr.
To deceased partner’s capital A/c
(Being deceased partner’s capital A/c credited with his share in profit)

Question 2.
On dissolution, what entry is passed if a partner takes over an asset of the firm?
Answer:
Partner’s capital A/c …Dr.
To Realisation A/c
(Being assets were taken over by partners.)

Question 3.
State four features of Receipts and Payments Account.
Answer:
Following are the four features of Receipt and Payment Account:

• It is a Real Account
• It records all receipts whether it Revenue or capital in nature in the debit side
• It records all Payments in credit side, whether it is revenue or capital in native
• It doesn’t record any non-cash item. i.e. Depreciation, outstanding etc.

Question 4.
State four features of a partnership.
Answer:
Following are the essential features of a partnership firm:

• Two or More Persons: There must be two or more competent Persons to form a Partnership firm.
• Agreement between the Partners: Partnership is created by an agreement which forms the basis of mutual rights and duties of Partners. This agreement may be either oral or in writing.
• Engagement in legal business: The Partnership should be for carrying on some legal business with the intention of earning profits.
• Sharing of Profit: Profit earned should be divided amongst Partners in the agreed Profit sharing ratio.

Question 5.
Explain three factors affecting goodwill.
Answer:
Some Following Factors affecting the value of goodwill.

• Location: A Favourable location of the business helps to a great extent in attracting customers.
• Nature of Business: The nature of the business also affects the value of goodwill.
• Time: An older business will have more goodwill since it is better known to the customers.
• Risk Involved: The more the risk involves in the business, less the nature of goodwill.

Question 6.
Distinguish between the Average Profit Method and Super Profit Method of calculating goodwill.
Answer:
Distinguishment between Super profit method and Average profit method of calculating goodwill. Super profit method Under this method, super profits constitute the basis of calculation of the value of goodwill. And hence, goodwill is calculated by multiplying the super-profits by a reasonable number of years.
Formula:
Goodwill = Super profit × Agreed on number of year’s purchase.
Where Super profit = Actual average profit – Normal profit.
Average profit method: Under average profit method, goodwill is valued on the basis of the agreed number of years’ because of the average profits of the last few years.
Formula:
Goodwill = Average profit × Number of years purchase.

Question 7.
How will you calculate the amount due to a deceased partner?
Answer:

Question 8.
A, B and C are partners sharing the profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. They admit D for 1/6 the share. It is agreed that C would retain his original share. Calculate New Ratio.
Answer:

Question 9.
P, Q and R are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. Q retires and his share was divided equally between P and R. Calculate new profit sharing ratio of P and R.
Answer:
Q’s Share will be divided between P and R equally:

Question 10.
Distinguish between the dissolution of partnership and dissolution of the firm.
Answer:
Difference between the dissolution of partnership and dissolution of firm are as fellow:

• Change in relation: The dissolution of the firm implies a complete break-down of the partnership relationship between all the partners whereas dissolution of the partnership merely involves a change in the relation of the partners.
• Continuance of business: In the case of dissolution of a firm the business comes to an end whereas in case of dissolution of partnership the business of the firm is continued.
• Effect: Dissolution of partnership does not necessarily mean the dissolution of the firm whereas dissolution of the firm necessarily implies the dissolution of a partnership.
• Closure of Books of Accounts: On dissolution of the firm all accounts books are closed whereas in case of dissolution of partnership closure of books is not required.
• Nature: Dissolution of the partner is voluntary whereas dissolution of the firm is voluntary and compulsory.
• Court order: The firm may be dissolved by the order of the court whereas dissolution of the partnership is a process of reconstitution.
• Disposal of Assets and Liabilities: In case of dissolution of partnership assets and liabilities are revalued and new Balance sheet is drawn. But in case of dissolution of a firm, assets are realised and liabilities are paid off.

Question 11.
In what circumstance can a firm be dissolved?
Answer:
Following are the circumstances under which a firm can be dissolved

• Retirement of any of the partner
• Death of any of the partner
• Any of the partners declared as insolvent
• The incapability of any partner
• Completion of the venture
• At the expiry of the term of the partnership.

Question 12.
State the ways of redemption of debentures.
Answer:

• Payment in annual Installment
• Purchase own debenture in the open market

Question 13.
State two objectives of Financial Statements.
Answer:
Two objectives of Financial statements

• Source of Financial Information
• Help in Financial Forecasting
• Information about Earning capacity.

Question 14.
State two limitations of analysis of Financial Statement.
Answer:
Two Limitation of Financial Analysis

• Lack of Preciseness
• The problem of Interpretation.

Question 15.
State two objectives of ratio analysis.
Answer:
Two objectives of ratio analysis

• To measure the profitability of the concern
• To assess the solvency of the business
• Facilitate comparative analysis.

Question 16.
Give two examples of cash flow from operating activity.
Answer:
Two examples

• Cash sale of goods
• Receipt from debtors.

Question 17.
What do you mean by Fixed Charges and Floating Charges?
Answer:
Fixed charges are made on specific assets of a company, on the other hand. Floating charges are made on
General assets of a company.

Question 18.
What is the difference between Reserve and Provision?
Answer:

Question 19.
What is meant by Analysis of Financial Statement?
Answer:
The analysis is the process of critically examining the accounting information given in financial statements. For this purpose of analysis, individual items are studies, their inter-relationship with other related figures is established.
According to Finley and Miller,”Financial analysis consists in separating facts according to some definite plan, arranging them in groups according to certain circumstances and then presenting them in a convenient and easily readable and understandable form.”

Question 20.
What is meant by Comparative Financial Statement?
Answer:
Comparative Financial Statement: Statement showing financial data of Balance Sheet or profit & loss statement for two or more than two years, placed side by side to facilitates comparison is called comparative financial statements. This type of analysis is called horizontal analysis.

Question 21.
Distinguish between preference share and equity share.
Answer:

Question 22.
State any three differences between shareholders and debenture holders.
Answer:

Question 23.
Why is Cash flow statement prepared?
Answer:
Cash Flow Statement is one of the important tools of cash management because it throws light on cash inflows of cash equivalents during a specific period. This statement exhibits the flow of incoming cash. This statement assesses the ability of the enterprise to generate cash and utilise the cash. And so cash flow statement is one of the tools for assessing the liquidity and solvency of the enterprises.

Question 24.
Current Ratio is 2 : 1. Working Capital is Rs. 1,50,000. Calculate the amounts of current assets and current liabilities.
Answer:

Question 25.
What do you mean by the company? State its essential features.
Answer:
A company means a company incorporated or registered under the Companies Act, 2013 or under any other earlier companies Act.

It a voluntary association of persons formed for some common purpose having a capital divided into transferrable shares. It is created by law and effected by law. A company may be defined as an artificial person created by law, having perpetual succession and a common seal.

According to L.H. Haney. “A company is an artificial person created by law having a separate entity with perpetual succession and a common seal. It is a voluntary association of individuals for-profits, having a capital divided into transferrable shares ownership of which is the condition of membership.”

Following are the essential features of the company:

• Association of persons: A company is an association of persons, usually for profit.
• Artificial person: It is an artificial person created by law.
• Separate legal entity: It has a separate legal entity from its members. So it can be sued in its own name. It can own or dispose of the property in its own name.
• Limited liability: It has limited liability. Liability of members is limited to the extent of the face value of shares need by them.
• Perpetual succession: A company being an artificial person never dies. It is a creation of law, so, its existing law. It is not affected by the death of shares held by them.
• Common seal: It has a common seal which acts as the official signature of the company. Any document without the common seal of the company is not binding on the company.
• Transferability of shares: The capital of a company is divided into shares. The shares of a company are transferable except in case of a private company.
• Separate ownership and management: In companies, there is a divorce between ownership and management. It is owned by members (shareholders) but it is managed by the Board of Directors who are elected by shareholders. Members of a company can not directly participate in the management of the business of the company.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question No. 26 to 33 are long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them. Each question carries 5 marks. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 26.
Form the following statement of profit and loss of the year ended 31st March 2014, prepare a comparative statement of profit and loss of X Ltd:

Answer:

Question 27.
Receipts and Payments A/c of Maitree Club for the year ended March 31, 2013, shows that the subscriptions received were Rs. 25,000. Additional information is as follows:

Ascertain the amount of income from a subscription for the year 2012-13 and show how relevant items of subscriptions appear in Opening and Closing Balance Sheet.
Answer:
Statement showing Income from a subscription for the year ended 2012-13

Question 28.
A, B and C are equal partners. Their fixed capitals as on 1st April. 2012 were A Rs. 10,000, B Rs. 20,000 and C Rs. 30,000. Profits for the year 2012-13 amounted to Rs. 12,000 which were distributed. Give the necessary Journal entries if the interest on capital was credited @ 10% p.a. instead of 12% p.a.
Answer:

Question 29.
X, Y and Z are partners in a firm in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. On 1st April 2013 they decided to share profits in future in the ratio of 7 : 5 : 4. On that date general reserve is Rs. 76,000 and profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities being Rs. 68,000. It was decided that adjustment should be made without altering the figures in the Balance Sheet. Make adjustment by one Single Journal entry.
Answer:

Question 30.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses equally. They dissolved the firm on 30th December 2013 on which date their positions were as under:

All the assets realise less than 10% book value. Creditors were paid in full. Expenses of realisation amounted to Rs. 500. Prepare Realisation account. Partners Capital account and cash or bank account.
Answer:

Question 31.
Rudra Company Ltd. issued 35,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. 2 payable as follows:
On Application – Rs. 3
On Allotment – Rs. 5
The balance on the first call
Record Journal entreis.
Answer:

Question 32.
Urvashi Ltd. purchased one established business for Rs. 50,000 payable Rs. 15,000 in cash and the balance by Issue of 9% debentures of Rs. 100 at a discount of 10%. Give journal entries in the books of Urvashi Ltd.
Answer:

Question 33.
From the following data, prepare a statement of profits in the comparative form:

Answer:

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Full Marks: 100

Instructions for the candidates

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as for as practicable.
4. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper has two sections: Section – A and Section – B.
6. In Section – A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise, the result will be treated as invalid.
7. In Section – B there are Non-objective type questions. There are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 8 Long answer type questions, out of which any 4 of them are to answer. Each question carries 5 marks.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 50 have four options, out of which only one is correct, you have to mark correct option on the OMR Sheet. (50 × 1 = 50)

Question 1.
Receipts and Payments Account usually indicates:
(a) Surplus
(b) Capital fund
(c) Debit Balance
(d) Credit Balance
Answer:
(c) Debit Balance

Question 2.
Receipts and Payments Account is a:
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Real Account

Question 3.
Outstanding subscription is a:
(a) Income
(b) Asset
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Asset

Question 4.
Income and Expenses related to the prize fund is shown in:
(a) Income and Expenditure Account
(b) The asset side of the Balance sheet
(c) Liabilities side of the Balance sheet
(d) Cash Account
Answer:
(a) Income and Expenditure Account

Question 5.
Income and Expenditure Account records:
(a) All cash receipts and payments
(b) All credit receipts and payments
(c) All cash and credit receipts and payments
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) All cash receipts and payments

Question 6.
Which sequence is correct and appropriate?
(a) Cashbook, Receipts & Payment Account, Income & Expenditure Account and Balance sheet.
(b) Receipts and Payments Account, Cash Book, Income and Expenditure Account and Balance sheet
(c) Income and Expenditure Account, Receipts and Payments account, cash book and Balance sheet.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Income and Expenditure Account, Receipts and Payments account, cash book and Balance sheet.

Question 7.
The main aim of the Not-for-Profit organisation is:
(a) To earn profit
(b) To serve society
(c) To earn profit and serve society
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) To serve society

Question 8.
Payment of Honorarium to Secretary is a:
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Revenue Expenditure

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) There is no difference between Cash Book and Receipts and Payments Account
(b) Receipts and Payments Account is prepared after Cash Book
(c) Receipts and Payments Account is maintained by Non-trading concern whereas Cash Book is maintained by the Trading concern
(d) Receipts and Payment Account is prepared before Cash Book
Answer:
(c) Receipts and Payments Account is maintained by Non-trading concern whereas Cash Book is maintained by the Trading concern

Question 10.
When the time of withdrawals is not mentioned, interest on drawings is charged:
(a) For 6 1/2 months
(b) For 6 months
(c) For 5 1/2 months
(d) For 12 months
Answer:
(b) For 6 months

Question 11.
Recording of the unrecorded asset on the reconstitution of a partnership firm will be.
(a) Again to the existing partner
(b) A loss to the existing partner
(c) Neither a gain nor a loss to the existing partner
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) A loss to the existing partner

Question 12.
Current Account is:
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Personal Account

Question 13.
In which ratio, the cash brought in for goodwill by the new partner is shard by the existing partners.
(a) Profit-Sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Sacrificing Ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Sacrificing Ratio

Question 14.
A, B and C are three partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be:
(a) 10 : 7 : 7 : 4
(b) 5 : 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1

Question 15.
The executors will be paid interest on the amount due from the date of death of the partner @
(a) 4%
(b) 5%
(c) 6%
(d) 7%
Answer:
(c) 6%

Question 16.
Realisation Account is a:
(a) Personal Account
(b) Nominal Account
(c) Real Account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Nominal Account

Question 17.
A firm can be voluntarily dissolved by the partners:
(a) On Majority basis
(b) On 3/4 Member’s decision
(c) On 1/2 Member’s decision
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) On Majority basis

Question 18.
Unrecorded liabilities when paid will be shown in:
(a) The debit side of Realisation Account
(b) Debit side of Bank Account
(c) Credit side of Realisation Account
(d) Credit side of Bank Account
Answer:
(a) The debit side of Realisation Account

Question 19.
Who are the owners of the company?
(a) Equity shareholders
(b) Preference shareholders
(c) Debenture holders
(d) Both A & B
Answer:
(a) Equity shareholders

Question 20.
Forfeiture of shares results in the reduction of:
(a) Paid-up capital
(b) Authorised capital
(c) Fixed Assets
(d) Reserve capital
Answer:
(a) Paid-up capital

Question 21.
Profit on cancellation of own debentures is transferred to:
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) Capital Reserve Account
Answer:
(d) Capital Reserve Account

Question 22.
Interest on Sinking fund Investment is credited to:
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) Sinking fund Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) Sinking fund Investment Account
Answer:
(b) Sinking fund Account

Question 23.
Discount on issue of debentures is:
(a) Fixed Asset
(b) Current Asset
(c) Real Asset
(d) Factitious Asset
Answer:
(d) Factitious Asset

Question 24.
In case of issue of debentures as collateral security for a loan from the bank which account will be debited:
(a) Bank Account
(b) Bank Loan Account
(c) Debenture Account
(d) Debentures Suspense Account
Answer:
(c) Debenture Account

Question 25.
According to SEBI guidelines, a company will have to create debenture redemption reserve equivalent to the amount of the following percentage of debenture issued:
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 100%
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 26.
As per the provisions of Companies Act, 2013 under which section, the final Accounts of a company is prepared:
(a) 128
(b) 210
(c) 129
(d) 212
Answer:
(b) 210

Question 27.
Out of the following which parties are interested in financial statement?
(a) Managers
(b) Financial Institutions
(c) Creditors
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 28.
Debt-Equity Ratio is:
(a) Liquidity ratio
(b) Activity Ratio
(c) Solvency Ratio
(d) Operating ratio
Answer:
(c) Solvency Ratio

Question 29.
When the opening stock is 50,000 Rs closing stock 60,000 Rs and cost of goods sold is 2,20,000 Rs then stock Turnover Ratio is:
(a) 2 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 4 times
(d) 5 times
Answer:
(c) 4 times

Question 30.
Cash flow statement is related to:
(a) AS – 3
(b) AS – 6
(c) AS – 09
(d) AS – 12
Answer:
(a) AS – 3

Question 31.
Which of the following activity comes under Financial Activities?
(a) Receipts from the issuance of Equity shares
(b) Cash sales
(c) Bank overdraft
(d) Purchase of Debentures
Answer:
(a) Receipts from the issuance of Equity shares

Question 32.
Which of the following item is not considered as cash equivalents?
(a) Bank overdraft
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Treasury Bills
(d) Investment
Answer:
(d) Investment

Question 33.
Cash from operating activities will decrease due to:
(a) Increase in current Assets
(b) The decrease in current liabilities
(c) Neither of the two
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) The decrease in current liabilities

Question 34.
The term Quick assets do not include:
(a) Stock
(b) Debtors
(c) B/R
(d) Cash and Bank Balance
Answer:
(a) Stock

Question 35.
Dividends are usually paid on:
(a) Authorised capital
(b) Issued capital
(c) Called up capital
(d) Paid-up capital
Answer:
(d) Paid-up capital

Question 36.
The nominal capital is known as:
(a) Authorised Capital
(b) Registered Capital
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 37.
When a partner takes responsibility to make the payment of any outside liability of a firm, the account credited will be:
(a) Realisation account
(b) Cash Account
(c) partner’s capital Account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) partner’s capital Account

Question 38.
Cash balance shown in the Balance sheet is shown on the dissolution of the firm in:
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Cash Account
(c) Capital Account
(d) Profit and Loss Account
Answer:
(b) Cash Account

Question 39.
‘x’ and ‘y’ share profit in the ratio of 3 : 2. ‘z’ was admitted as a partner who gets 1/5 share, z acquires 3/20 share from ‘x’ and 1/20 from y. The new profit sharing ratio will be:
(a) 9 : 7 : 4
(b) 8 : 8 : 4
(c) 6 : 10 : 4
(d) 10 : 6 : 4
Answer:
(a) 9 : 7 : 4

Question 40.
partner’s current Account is prepared when the capital of partners is maintained under:
(a) Fluctuating basis
(b) Fixed basis
(c) In both of the situations
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Fluctuating basis

Question 41.
The amount received from the issue of debentures is:
(a) Capital receipts
(b) Revenue Receipts
(c) Capital and Revenue Receipt
(d) Neither capital nor revenue
Answer:
(a) Capital receipts

Question 42.
The Ideal Quick Ratio is:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 0.5 : 1
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 1 : 1

Question 43.
Goodwill is:
(a) Fixed Assets
(b) Intangible Assets
(c) Fictitious Asset
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(b) Intangible Assets

Question 44.
Provision for Taxation is:
(a) Current liability
(b) Interval Reserve
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Current liability

Question 45.
Interest payable on debentures is:
(a) A charge against profit
(b) Appropriation of profit
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) A charge against profit

Question 46.
The formula of sacrificing ratio is:
(a) New Ratio-old Ratio
(b) Old Ratio-New Ratio
(c) Old Ratio-gaining Ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Old Ratio-New Ratio

Question 47.
Subscription received in Advance is:
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Income
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Liability

Question 48.
Right shares are the shares which:
(a) Are issued to directors of the company
(b) Are issued to existing shareholders of the company
(c) Are issued to promoters in consideration of their services
(d) Are issued to vendors for purchasing assets
Answer:
(c) Are issued to promoters in consideration of their services

Question 49.
When the current ratio is 2 : 5 and the amount of current liabilities is 25000 Rs, what is the amount of current assets?
(a) ₹ 62,500
(b) ₹ 12,500
(c) ₹ 10,000
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) ₹ 12,500

Question 50.
Which one of the following is a non-cash item?
(a) Depreciation
(b) Goodwill wrote off
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Depreciation

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 25 are Short answer type questions. Answer any 15 out of them. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 × 3 = 30)

Question 1.
What is Income and Expenditure Account?
Answer:
Income and expenditure Account is a Nominal Account. It is a summary of incomes and expenses for a
particular accounting period.lt is like a profit and loss account of a business concern. Thus, an income and expenditure Account is a revenue account of a non-profit organisation. It serves the same purpose as the profit and loss Account in trading concerns.

Question 2.
What are the Current Assets?
Answer:
Current assets is a balance sheet account that represents the value of all assets that can reasonably expect to be converted into cash within one year. Current assets include cash and cash equivalents, accounts receivable, inventory, prepaid, marketable securities etc.

Question 3.
Define the Sinking fund.
Answer:
A sinking fund is a means of repaying funds borrowed through a bond issue through periodic payments to a trustee who retires part of the issue by purchasing the bonds in the open market. Rather than the issuer repaying the entire principal of a bond issue on the maturity date, another company buy back a portion of the issue annually and usually at fixed par value or at the current market value of the bonds whichever is less.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the Current Ratio and Quick Ratio.
Answer:
The main difference between the current ratio and the quick ratio is that the letter offers a more conservative view of the company’s ability to meets its short-term liabilities with its short-term assets because it does not include inventory and other current assets that are more difficult to liquidate. By excluding inventory the quick ratio focuses on the company’s more liquid assets.

Question 5.
Explain four characteristics of a Partnership firm.
Answer:
Following are the feature of a partnership firm:

• Two or more persons
• Agreement
• Profit-sharing
• Mutual agency.

Question 6.
What is Super Profit?
Answer:
Super profit is the excess of average profits over normal profits. Under this method, goodwill is calculated on the basis of super-profits.

Question 7.
What is a Financial Statement?
Answer:
The end product of financial accounting is financial statements. Financial statements are organised summaries of detailed information about the financial position and performance of enterprises for a particular period. Financial statements are also called financial report. The term ‘Financial statement’ normally refers to two basic statements, namely.

• Balance sheet
• Statement of profit loss.

Question 8.
What is Cash Flow Statement?
Answer:
Meaning of Cash Flow Statement: A statement of changes in financial position on a cash basis is commonly known as the cash flow statement. It shows the changes in cash position from one accounting period to another. In other words, the cash flow statement summarises the causes of changes in cash and cash equivalents position between dates of two Balance Sheets. It indicates the sources and uses of cash. This statement attempts to analyse the transactions of the firm in terms of cash. Thus, a Cash Flow Statement can be defined as a statement which summarises sources of cash inflows and uses of cash outflows of the firm during a particular period of time, says, a month or a year.

Question 9.
Distinguish between Realisation Account and Revaluation Account.
Answer:
Revaluation Account is prepared only when there is any change in the value of asset and liabilities of the partnership firm at the time of admission, retirement, and death of a partner. On the other hand, Realisation Account is opened when the firm goes into liquidation, so as to close the books of account and also to compute the effect (profit or loss) arising due to the realisation of assets and settlement of liabilities.

Question 10.
What is over-subscription of shares?
Answer:
When the number of shares applied for is more than the number of shares offered to the public the issue as said to be over-subscribed. However, a company cannot allot shares more than those offered for subscription.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Gaining Ratio and Sacrificing Ratio.
Answer:
Difference between sacrificing Ratio and Gaining ratio
Sacrificing Ratio:

• It is the ratio in which the old partners surrender their share of profit in favour of the new partner.
• It is calculated at the time of admission of a new partner.
• The purpose of calculating sacrificing ratio is to calculate the share of goodwill payable to old partners at the time of admission of a partner.
• Old Partner’s Capita! Account increase with the amount received as goodwill. New partner losses.
• It is calculated by deducting the new ratio from the old ratio.
• New Partner’s Capital A/c Dr. To Old Partner’s Capital A/c (In sacrificing ratio)

Gaining Ratio:

• It is the ratio in which the remaining partners share the retiring partner’s share of profit.
• It is calculated at the time of retirement or death of a partner.
• The purpose of calculating gaining ratio is to calculate the share of goodwill payable to the retiring partner by each of the remaining partners.
• Retiring partner gains and the remaining partners capital reduces, so they lose.
• It is calculated by deducting the old ratio from the new ratio.
• Remaining Partner’s Capital A/cs Dr. To Retiring Partner’s Capital A/c.

Question 12.
What is the forfeiture of shares?
Answer:
The term ‘forfeit’ means taking away of a thing or property on breach of a condition or default. A shareholder is liable to pay all the calls made by the company within the stipulated time. If a shareholder fails to pay allotment money and/or call money due on the shares held by him the company has right to forfeit such shares. But the company will have to follow the procedures specified in its Articles of Association. To forfeit a share means to cancel the allotment of defaulting shareholders.

Question 13.
Define Prospectus.
Answer:
The prospectus is the basis of the agreement between the company and the shareholders who take the shares on the strength of the prospectus. If they have been misleading by any statement in or omission of a material fact from the prospectus, they may

• hold the directors responsible for the loss that he may have suffered and.
• rescind the contract for taking the shares.

Question 14.
Distinguish between Revenue profit and Capital profit.
Answer:
Following are the main difference between capital profit and revenue profit.
Mode of Earning: Capital profit is earned by selling of assets, shares and debentures at a price more than their book value and face value. Revenue profit is earned in the ordinary course of business.

Distribution: Capital profit is not available for the distribution to shareholders as a dividend. Revenue profit is available for the distribution to shareholders a dividend.

Use: Capital profit is transferred to capital reserve and used for meeting capital losses. Revenue profit is used to distribute dividend and create reserve and fund for various purpose.

Treatment: Capital profit is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet. Revenue profit is shown as a debit balance on the debit side of the trading and profit & loss accounts and asset side of the balance sheet as an accumulated loss.

Question 15.
What is Financial Analysis?
Answer:
The financial analysis consists in separating facts according to some definite plan arranging them in groups according to certain circumstances and then presenting them in a convenient and easily readable and understandable form.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Cash Book and Receipts and Payments Account.
Answer:
Difference between Receipts and Payment Account and Cash Book.

Question 17.
What is an unlimited liability?
Answer:
The indefinite extent of liability to pay a firms debts or obligations, extending beyond the investments of the firm’s owner partners of shareholders to their personal assets. This extent of liability is assumed in an unlimited liability.

Question 18.
Distinguish between charge against profit and Appropriation of profit.
Answer:
Difference between Appropriation of profit and charge against profit.

Question 19.
Distinguish between Fixed capital and Fluctuating capital.
Answer:
Distinguish between Fixed Capital and Fluctuating Capital.

Question 20.
Write four items relating to Not-for-Proft organisation.
Answer:
Following are four items relating to Non-for-Profit organisations.

• Not-for-profit organisations are established for the welfare and service of society and their members.
• They promote art, culture, religion, education sports etc.
• They do not operate with the objective of earning profit.
• These organisations are set-up as charitable societies, trust or club etc.

Question 21.
Distinguish between ‘Charge against profit’ & ‘Appropriation out of profit.’
Answer:
Distinguish between “charge against profit” and Appropriation out of profit as discussed below.

Question 22.
Why the valuation of goodwill is required? Give a minimum of three reasons.
Answer:
The need for valuation of goodwill as discussed below:

• If any partner is admitted
• If any partner retires from the firm
• If any partner dies
• If any firm is sold
• If a firm is converted into a Company.

Question 23.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{3}: \frac{1}{6}\). Find out new profit sharing ratio if B retires.
Answer:
Old ratio of A, B and C = \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{3}: \frac{1}{6}\) or, \(\frac{3}{6}: \frac{2}{6}: \frac{1}{6}\) = 3 : 2 : 1
B. Retires, New Radio = 3 : 1

Question 24.
Under which circumstances, a partnership firm is deemed to be dissolved?
Answer:
Under the following circumstances, a partnership firm is deemed to be dissolved

• Retirement of any of the partner
• Death of my partner
• Any of partner declared as insolvent
• In capability of any partner
• completion of the ventures
• At the expiry of the term of the partnership.

Question 25.
A, B and C were partners sharing profits in the ratio of \(\frac{2}{6}, \frac{1}{2}\) and \(\frac{1}{6}\). A retires and surrenders \(\frac{2}{3}\)rd of his share in favour of B and remaining in favour of C. Calculate new ratio and gaining ratio.
Answer:
A’s share (2/6) will be divided between B and C in the ratio of \(\frac{2}{3}: \frac{1}{3}\)
B’s gain = \(\frac{2}{3}\) of \(\frac{2}{6}: \frac{4}{18}\);
C’s gain = \(\frac{1}{3}\) of \(\frac{2}{6}=\frac{2}{18}\)
New share = old share + gaining share
B’s new share = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{4}{18}=\frac{9+4}{18}=\frac{13}{18}\)
C’s new share = \(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{2}{18}=\frac{3+2}{18}=\frac{5}{18}\)
New ratio of B and C = \(\frac{13}{18}: \frac{5}{18}\) or 13 : 5

Long Answer Type Questions

Question no. 26 to 33 are Long answer type questions. Answer any 4 of them. Each question carries 5 marks. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 26.
From the following information, calculate goodwill by (i) Capitalization method and (ii) at 3 years purchase of super-profits:
(i) Total Assets ₹ 10,00,000
(ii) External liabilities ₹ 1,80,000
(iii) Normal Rate of Return 10%
(iv) Average Net Profit of the last five years ₹ 1,00,000
Answer:
Calculation of Goodwill by using capitalization method.

10,00,000 – 820,000
Goodwill = 120,000
Net Assets = Total Assets – Liabilities = 10,00,000 – 180,000 = 820,000
Calculation of Goodwill by using super profit methods.

Super profit = 100,000 – 82,000 = 18,000
Goodwill = 180,000

Question 27.
An Ltd. company issued 5000 shares of ₹ 100 each at a premium of ₹ 5 per share payable as ₹ 20 on Application, ₹ 35 on the allotment (including premium), ₹ 30 on the first call and the balance on the second call. All the amounts were duly received except the first call money on 500 shares and the final call money on 700 shares. These shares have been forfeited and re-issued at ₹ 80 per share. Give Journal entries to record the above transactions.
Answer:

Question 28.
What is Cash Flow statement? How is it prepared?
Answer:
Meaning of cash flow statement: cash flow statement can be defined on a statement which summarises sources of cash inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalent of the firm from various business activities during a given period. Thus, this statement exhibits the flow of incoming and outgoing cash.

Calculation of Cash Flows from Operating Activities: Almost all the companies prepare its Income Statement on the accrual basis of accounting under which revenues are recorded when earned and expenses are recorded when incurred. Because of this, net profit, as shown by Income Statement will not be equal to cash generated by operating activities. Hence, there is a need to calculate cash flows from operating activities. AS-3 (Revised) suggests two methods of reporting cash flows from operating activities:
(1) Direct Method, and (2) Indirect Method.

1. Direct Method: Under the direct method, major classes of gross cash receipts and gross cash payments are considered. Under this method, cash receipts from operating activities, i.e., cash received from the sale of goods and rendering services, cash collected from customers and cash received from trading commission and royalties and cash payments for operating activities such as payment to creditors for goods and services, employees for their services etc. are disclosed. The difference between cash receipts and cash payments is the net cash flow from operating activities. A cash flow statement based on the direct method is a Profit & Loss Account on a cash basis.

2. Indirect Method: Under this method, net profit or loss is adjusted for the effects of transactions of noncash nature and non-operating nature and changes in current assets and liabilities.

Question 29.
Calculate current Assets of a company from the following information:
Stock Turnover Ratio = 4 times
Stock at the end is ₹ 20,000 more than stock in the beginning.
Sales ₹ 300,000 and Gross Profit Ratio is 20% of sales.
Current liabilities = ₹ 40,000
Quick Ratio = 0.75
Answer:
Sales 300,000, G.P Ratio = 20%;
Cost of Goods sold = Sales – G.P.;
GP = \(=300,000 \frac{\times 20}{100}=60,000\)
300000 – 60000 = 240000
Stock Turnover Ratio = \($\frac{\text { cost of Goodwill }}{\text { Aug.Stock }}$\)
4 = 240000/Aug.stock
Aug. Stock = 240,000/4 = 60,000
Let op. stock = x
So, cl. stock = x + 20,000
Avg. Stock = \(=\frac{x+x+20,000}{2}\) = 60,000
x + 10,000 = 60,000
x = 60,000 – 10,000 = 50,000
op. Stock = 50,000
Quick Ratio = Liquid Assets/CL. Liabilities
0. 75 = L. A/400,000
L. A. = 30,000
Current Assets = L.A + C.L. Stock = 30,000 + 70,000
C.A = 10,000

Question 30.
From the following particulars, Calculate Cash Flow from Investing Activities.
Investment at the beginning of the Period: 5,80,000
Investment at the end of the Period: 3,40,000
During the year the company had sold 50% of its investment held in the beginning of the period at a profit of ₹ 90,000
Answer:

Question 31.
Pass Journal entries when shares are issued at a premium.
Answer:
Journal entries where shares are issued at a premium.
I. When share premium is payable with application money.
(i) At the time of receipt of application money.
Bank A/c — Dr.
To share Application A/c
(ii) At the time of transfer of Application Money:
Share Application A/c
To share Capital A/c
To securities premium A/c

II. When the premium is payable on Allotment.
(i) Share Allotment A/c — Dr.
To share Capital A/c
To securities Premium A/c
(ii) On receipt of Allotment Money.
Bank A/c — Dr.
To share Allotment A/c

III. When the premium is payable with share call money.
(i) Share Call A/c — Dr.
To share Capital A/c
To securities Premium A/c
(ii) When call money is received.
Bank A/c — Dr.
To share call A/c

Question 32.
From the following comparative balance sheet prepare cash flow statement as on 31st December 2016.

Depreciation charged on machinery Rs. 5,000
Answer:
Calculation of cash flow statement from operating Activities.

Question 33.
Prepare an imaginary proforma of the cash flow statement.
Answer:
Imaginary proforma of cash flow statement

Bihar Board Class 9th Social Science Objective Questions and Answers Key 2019, 2020, 2021 Pdf free download in Hindi Medium and English Medium.

Bihar Board 9th Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 9th Social Science Objective Questions and Answers Key 2020-2021 Pdf Download

Bihar Board 9th Social Science Objective Questions and Answers in Hindi

Bihar Board Class 9th History Objective Answers

इतिहास : इतिहास की दुनिया भाग 1

• Chapter 1 भौगोलिक खोजें
• Chapter 2 अमेरिकी स्वतंत्रता संग्राम
• Chapter 3 फ्रांस की क्रान्ति
• Chapter 4 विश्वयुध्दों का इतिहास
• Chapter 5 जर्मनी में नाजीवाद का उदय
• Chapter 6 आदिवासी समाज और उपनिवेशवाद
• Chapter 7 विश्वशांति के प्रयास
• Chapter 8 कृषि और खेतिहर ममाज

Bihar Board Class 9th Geography Objective Answers

भूगोल : भारत : भूमि एवं लोग भाग 1

• Chapter 1 स्थिति एवं विस्तार
• Chapter 2 भौतिक स्वरूप : संरचना एवं उच्चावच
• Chapter 3 अपवाह स्वरूप
• Chapter 4 जलवायु
• Chapter 5 प्राकृतिक वनस्पति एवं वन्य प्राणी
• Chapter 6 जनसंख्या
• Chapter 7 भारत के पड़ोसी देश
• Chapter 8 मानचित्र अध्ययन
• Chapter 9 क्षेत्रीय अध्ययन
• Chapter 10 आपदा प्रबन्धन : एक परिचय
• Chapter 11 मानवीय गलतियों के कारण घटित : घटनाएँ : नाभिकीय, जैविक और रासायनिक
• Chapter 12 सामान्य आपदाएँ : निवारण एवं नियंत्रण
• Chapter 13 समुदाय आधारित आपदा प्रबन्धन

Bihar Board Class 9th Political Science Objective Answers

राजनीति विज्ञान : लोकतांत्रिक राजनीति भाग 1

• Chapter 1 लोकतन्त्र का क्रमिक विकास
• Chapter 2 लोकतन्त्र क्या और क्यों?
• Chapter 3 संविधान निर्माण
• Chapter 4 चुनावी राजनीति
• Chapter 5 संसदीय लोकतंत्र की संस्थाएँ
• Chapter 6 लोकतांत्रिक अधिकार

Bihar Board Class 9th Economics Objective Answers

अर्थशास्त्र : हमारी अर्थव्यवस्था भाग 1

• Chapter 1 बिहार के एक गाँव की कहानी
• Chapter 2 मानव एवं संसाधन
• Chapter 3 गरीबी
• Chapter 4 बेकारी
• Chapter 5 कृषि, खाद्यान सुरक्षा एवं गुणवत्ता
• Chapter 6 कृषक मजदूर
• Bihar Board 9th Social Science Objective Model Set 1
• Bihar Board 9th Social Science Objective Model Set 2

Bihar Board 12th Entrepreneurship Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Entrepreneurship Model Question Paper 5 in English Medium

Time: 3 Hours 15 Min
Marks: 70

Instructions for the candidates:

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
4. This question paper has two sections: Section – A and Section – B.
5. In Section – A, there are 35 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/ Liquid/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise, the result will be treated as invalid.
6. In Section – B, there are Non-objective type questions. There are 18 Short answer type questions, out of which any 10 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 6 Long answer type questions, out of which any 3 of them are to be answered. Each question carries 5 marks.
7. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 35 has four options provided out of which only one is correct. You have to mark, your selected option, on the OMR-Sheet. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (35 × 1 = 35)

Question 1.
Management is an art.
(a) Self-working
(b) Working with others
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Working with others

Question 2
Project appraisal is an
(a) Export Analysis
(b) Expert Analysis
(c) Profitability Analysis
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Expert Analysis

Question 3.
Risk capital foundation was established in
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1986
(d) 1988
Answer:
(b) 1975

Question 4.
Out of the following which is the method of quality control?
(a) Inspection method
(b) Statistical quality control method
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
The best example of variable cost.
(a) Interest on capital
(b) Material cost
(c) Wealth Tax
(d) Rent
Answer:
(b) Material cost

Question 6.
Project identification deals with
(a) Variable product idea
(b) logical opportunity
(c) effective demand
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) logical opportunity

Question 7.
Responsibility of an entrepreneur is
(a) Towards society
(b) Towards government
(c) Towards environment
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 8.
Duty of an entrepreneur is
(a) Levying profit
(b) Tax evasion
(c) environmental pollution
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Levying profit

Question 9.
Integration means
(a) Expanding internally
(b) Expanding externally
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b) both

Question 10.
Telephone expenses are
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Semi variable
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Semi variable

Question 11.
Element affecting growth rate is
(a) Competition
(b) Change in Technology
(c) Creativity
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Competition

Question 12.
Naked debentures are
(a) Fully secured
(b) partly secured
(c) Unsecured
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Unsecured

Question 13.
IDBI was established in the year.
(a) 1944
(b) 1954
(c) 1964
(d) 1974
Answer:
(c) 1964

Question 14.
Dividend is
(a) Net profit
(b) Appropriation of profit
(c) reserve fund
(d) Part of undistributed profit
Answer:
(d) Part of undistributed profit

Question 15.
Public deposits are the source of
(a) Short term finance
(b) Long term finance
(c) Medium-term finance
(d) Social investment
Answer:
(b) Long term finance

Question 16.
Marketing expenditure is a burden.
(a) On industry
(b) On businessman
(c) On consumers
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) On consumers

Question 17.
Labelling is
(a) Compulsory
(b) Necessary
(c) Voluntary
(d) Wastage of money
Answer:
(b) Necessary

Question 18.
The maximum wide scope is
(a) Brand
(b) Labelling
(c) Packaging
(d) Trademark
Answer:
(a) Brand

Question 19.
Management is
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Art & Science
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Art & Science

Question 20.
Venture capital through originated first in
(a) India
(b) England
(c) America
(d) Japan
Answer:
(d) Japan

Question 21.
What does the break-even point show?
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Neither profit nor loss
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Neither profit nor loss

Question 22.
Ideal current Ratio is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 4 : 1
Answer:
(a) 2 : 1

Question 23.
Current Ratio is
(a) Balance Sheet Ratio
(b) Profit and Loss ratio
(c) Composite Ratio
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Balance Sheet Ratio

Question 24.
Closing stock is
(a) Source of fund
(b) Application of fund
(c) Not any flow of fund
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Source of fund

Question 25.
Long term loan bears.
(a) Fixed-rate of interest
(b) Flexible rate of interest
(c) Zero rates of interest
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Fixed-rate of interest

Question 26.
Accounting system is
(a) Single entry system
(b) double entry system
(c) Cost system
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) double entry system

Question 27.
Subsidy is
(a) Discount
(b) Concession
(c) Repayment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Concession

Question 28.
Of all management activities planning is the
(a) beginning
(b) End
(c) Beginning & end both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) beginning

Question 29.
The project report is a summary of:
(a) Facts
(b) Information
(c) Analysis
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 30.
A successful entrepreneur must possess the quality of:
(a) Leadership
(b) Control
(c) Innovation
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 31.
Debit to Receiver and giver to giver law is on :
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) Business A/c
Answer:
(a) Personal A/c

Question 32.
Public deposit resources are:
(a) Short-term loan
(b) Long-term Loan
(c) Mid-term loan
(d) Social Investment
Answer:
(b) Long-term Loan

Question 33.
Brand indicates:
(a) Symbol
(b) Design
(c) Name
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 34.
It is not included in fixed cost
(a) cost of goods
(b) cost of labour
(c) cost of power
(d) cost of factory
Answer:
(c) cost of power

Question 35.
Dividend is:
(a) Net profit
(b) Appropriation of profit
(c) Reserve fund
(d) Undistributed profit share
Answer:
(d) Undistributed profit share

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 18 are short answer type. Answer any 10 questions. Each question carries 2 marks. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 1.
What do you mean by “Motivation”?
Answer:
The concept of motivation is mainly psychological. It relates to those internal forces of an individual that impel him to act or not to act in certain ways. As it is well known that human beings have endless needs. They attach priorities to their needs. Managers diagnose their urgent needs and assure to fulfil them if they conform their behaviour to the requirements of the organisation. According to Terry and Franklin,” Motivation is the need or drive within an individual that drives him or her toward the goal.

Question 2.
What is an Organisation?
Answer:
An organisation is a social entity that has a collective goal and is linked to an external environment. The word is derived from the Greek word Nargaroth,’ itself derived from the better-known word ergon which means an organs-a compartment for a particular task.

A social unit of people that is structured and managed to meet a need or to pursue collective goals. All organisations have a management structure that determines relationships between the different activities, and the member and subdivides and assign roles, responsibilities and authority to carry out different tasks. The organisation is open systems they affect and are affected by their environment. Forms of business organisation are as follows:

• Sole trader or sole proprietorship
• Joint Hindu Family Business
• Partnership
• Co-operative Organisation
• Joint Stock Company.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the stock exchange market?
Answer:
The efficient functioning of a stock exchange creates a conducive climate for an active and growing primary market for new issues. An active and healthy secondary market in existing securities leads to positive environment among investors. The following are some of the important functions of a stock exchange.

(i) Providing liability and marketability to existing securities: The basic function of a stock exchange is the creation of a continuous market where securities are bought and sold. Its gives investors the change to disinvest and easy marketability to already existing securities in the market.

(ii) Pricing of securities: Share prices on a stock exchange are determined by the forces of demand and supply. A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined.

(iii) Safety of transaction: The membership of a stock exchange is well-regulated and its dealings are well defined according to the existing legal framework.

Question 4.
What are Enterprises?
Answer:
The meaning of any enterprises to that enterprise in which there is a lot of risks, uncertain losses exist. The origin of enterprises in it and fight to get more profit and power. When a commercial institution and industrial organisation set up a business then it is called an enterprise. An enterprise is set up for more profit and earning his success in the market.

Question 5.
Why it is essential to “Project work”?
Answer:
A project is an organised unit dedicated to the pre-determined objectives. A project can be completed within a proposed time frame, within budget and in accordance with specifications of planning. A project is any business opportunity which can be exploited for profit.
Project work is essential is written on some points which are as follows:

• During the course of the project work, the students feel like doing something exceptional.
• Any project work adds to the practical knowledge of the students.
• Whatever the theoretical knowledge attained by the students from the texts, the possible doubts are dispelled by means of the project work.

Question 6.
What are the different types of accounting ratios?
Answer:
According to ratios are classified into four categories as follows:

1. Liquidity ratio
2. Solvency ratio
3. Activity ratio
4. Profitability ratio.

1. Liquidity ratio: Liquidity means the ability of the undertaking to pay its short term debts in time financial institutions and short-term creditors are interested in such types of analysis. Management can also make use of these ratios to find out whether the working capital is being used efficiently or not.
2. Solvency ratio: Solvency ratios indicate the firm’s ability to meet long-term liabilities. Here, the term ‘solvency ratios’ has been used to mean the long-term financial position of the business.
3. Activity Ratios: These ratios are known as velocity ratios, activity ratios, performance ratios, efficiency ratios or turn over ratios. The funds of the owner and creditors are used to finance various assets of the firm.
4. Profitability ratios or Income ratios: The operating efficiency of a firm and its ability to ensure an adequate return to its shareholders are reflected in the profits earned by it. Profitability ratios can be computed either on the basis of sales or on the basis of the investment. Profitability ratios are calculated in relation to sales.

Question 7.
Discuss the three advantages of management.
Answer:
The three advantages of management are as follows:
(i) Management helps in achieving group goals: Management is required not for itself but for achieving the goals of the organisation. The task of a manager is to give a common direction to the individual effort in achieving the overall goal of the organisation.

(ii) Management increases efficiency: The aim of management is to reduce costs and increase productivity through better planning, organising, directing, staffing and controlling the activities of the organisation.

(iii) Management creates a dynamic organisation: All organisations have to function in an environment which is constantly changing. It is generally seen that individuals in an organisation resist change as it often means moving from a familiar, secure environment into a newer and more challenging one.

Question 8.
What is the marketing mix?
Answer:
The marketing mix is a set of marketing tools that the firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market. The variables or elements of marketing mix have been classified into four categories, popularly known as four Ps of marketing viz. product, price, place and product. These elements are combined to create an offer. A firm can reshape a market offering by bringing in a change in any of the variable under its own control say introducing a change in the price or promotion offer or product features or channel used to make the product available to buyers.

Question 9.
Who is an Entrepreneur?
Answer:
The term ‘entrepreneur’ was first introduced in economics by the early 18th-century French economist Richard Cantillon. The entrepreneur as the agent who buys means production at certain prices in order to sell the produce at uncertain prices in the future.” Since then a perusal of the usage of the term in economics shows, that entrepreneurship implies risk uncertainty bearing; coordination of productive resources; introduction of innovations; and the provision of capital Entrepreneurship is regarded as one of the four major factors of production, the other three being land, labour and capital. Entrepreneur set up his business. We can understand the three words, entrepreneur, entrepreneurship and enterprise by SVO analogy.

Question 10.
Explain three functions of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing is concerned with the exchange of goods and services from producers to consumers or users in such a way that maximises the satisfaction of customer’s needs. The three functions of marketing are as follows:

(i) Gathering and Analysing Market Information: One of the important functions of a marketer is to gather and analyse market information. This is necessary to identify the need of the customers and take various decisions for the successful marketing of the products and services.

(ii) Marketing planning: Another important activity or area of work of a marketer is to develop appropriate marketing plans so that the marketing objectives of the organisation can be achieved.
For example, A marketer of colour TVs, having 10 per cent of the current market share in the country aims at enhancing his market share to 20 per cent, in the next three years.

(iii) Product Designing and Development: The design of the product contribute to making the product attractive to the target customers. A good design can improve performance of a product and also give it a competitive advantage in the market for example, when we plan to buy any product say a motorbike we not only see its features like cost, mileage, etc. also the design aspects like its shape, style etc.

Question 11.
Explain three objectives of advertising.
Answer:
Advertising is one of the most frequently used media of promotion of good and services, it attracts a lot of criticism. The three objectives of advertising are as follows:

(i) Adds to cost: The opponents of advertising argue that advertising unnecessarily adds to the cost of the product, which is ultimately passed on to the buyers in the form of high prices. Advertisement of a product cost lot of money but it helps to increase the demand for the product as a large number of potential buyers.

(ii) Underlines social values: Advertising is undermined social values and promotes materialism. It breeds discontent among people as they come to know about new products and feel dissatisfied with their present state of affairs.

(iii) Encourage the sale of inferior products: Advertising does not distinguish between superior and inferior products and persuade people to purchase even the inferior product. Advertising sell products of a given quality and the buyers will buy it suits their requirement.

Question 12.
How many types of opportunity?
Answer:
There are two categories of opportunities are as follows:
(i) Existing opportunities in the environment: There is some kind of opportunities which are already existing e.g., paper, cloth and footwear industry where some innovative devices are required to bring about some modification, novelty and distinction from the existing quality and look.

(ii) Created opportunities: Such opportunities are not pre-existing rather created in view of the aspirations of the consumers, changing fashion trends, technical innovations and according to the prevailing conditions, assume new forms.

Question 13.
What are the main types of the environment?
Answer:
The main types of environment are followed:

• Internal environment: Internal environment involves those factors which remain under the control of the entrepreneur i.e. land, production, capital, labour, building or venue and infrastructure, etc.
• External environment: These are the factors on which the entrepreneur has no control i.e, economical, social, political, technical, competitive, clientele, shortage and market, etc. These factors do influence the performance and the decision of the entrepreneur.

Question 14.
Explain four functions of Packaging?
Answer:
Some of the important functions are as follows:

• Product identification: Packaging greatly helps in the identification of the products, for example, Colgate in red colour, or ponds, the cream jar can be easily identified by its package.
• Product protection: Packaging protects the contents of a product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, pilferage, damage, climate effect etc. The kind of protection is required during storing, distribution and transportation of the product.
• Facilitating use of the product: The size and shape of the package should be such that it should be convenient to open handle and use for the consumers. Cosmetics, medicines and tubes of toothpastes are good examples of this.
• Product promotion: Packaging is also used for promotion purposes. A starting colour scheme, photograph or typeface may be used to attract attention of the people at the point of purchase.

Question 15.
What is the break-even point?
Answer:
Break-even pointBreak-even analysis is related to the study of cost and return of and investment in relation to the sales of a business unit. That point or level of sales at which the business makes no profit and no loss is termed as the break-even point.

Question 16.
What are the responsibilities of each entrepreneur in the environment?
Answer:
Responsibilities of each entrepreneur of the environment are any kind of tampering with the environment in terms of filing, pollution, contamination, etc. is a serious offence which is causing great harm to the present generation. In addition, it is raising a question mark on the fate of the coming generation. No doubt, the industrial units do cause pollution, more or less, to the environment, and it is the prime responsibility of an entrepreneur not to harm the environment in any way. The industrial waste, raw, residual, etc., must not be thrown into the water, its right use should be encouraged. Personal profit should not be the sole consideration here to the extent that the environment is polluted. The government is very serious about it and does not permit, even then an entrepreneur ought to be considerate at his own in this regard.

Question 17.
Explain the importance of advertisement in business.
Answer:
The importance of advertisement in business are as follows:

• To Introduce new product and services: It is through advertising that the people are to be informed about any newly launched product and include them to buy it.
• To increase sales: Another aim of advertising is to promote sales. A trader always strives to increase sales and with this purpose in mind, he does advertising.
• To create and develop new markets: One objective of advertising is to explore and develop new vistas or markets which is easier to do so by means of advertising.
• To sustain the existing demand: The objective here is not only to increase demand rather exploit the current or existing demand which requires repeated advertising.
• To educate the consumer: Advertising always directs the prospective buyers to the seller by inspiring and educating them about the product and facilities the efforts of the producers this is what the advertising does.

Question 18.
Discuss the nature of management.
Answer:
Management is both an art and science as well it is important to look at these two aspects distinctly before arriving and confirming the veracity of this statement. Management is an art: Management is regarded as ‘art’ which means in order to do something and to accomplish some objective exercise of ability and knowledge becomes imperative. Art is a technique, that provides a practical shape to theories or principles. Art is a means to get the desired results. The success of an artist is to be measured on the basis of his performance. As such, it is not inappropriate to regard the management are an ‘art’.

Management is a science: A systematic knowledge which is based on some principles is known as science or science is that branch of knowledge that helps in laying down of certain principles followed by some presumptions and experimentation.

Conclusion: Management is an art because it exercises both knowledge and ability in order to accomplish the predetermined objectives, thus as a science, it aims to attain knowledge by means of study and experimentation.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question No. 19 to 24 are long answer type. Answer any 3 questions. Each question carries 5 marks. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 19.
Explain the characteristics of management.
Answer:
The basic characteristics of management are as follows:

• Management is a goal-oriented process: An organisation has a set of basic goals which are the basic reason for its existence. These should be simple and clearly stated. Different organisations have different goals.
• Management is all-pervasive: The activities involved in managing an enterprise are common to all organisations whether economic social or political. In other countries, they do it may be quite different. This difference is due to the differences in culture, tradition and history.
• Management is multidimensional: Management is a complex activity that has three main dimensions. These are:
  • Management of work
  • Management of people
  • Management of operations.
• Management is a continuous process: The process of management is a series of continuous, composite, but separate functions (planning, organising, directing, staffing and controlling). These functions are simultaneously performed by all the time.
• Management is a group activity: An organisation is a collection of diverse individuals with different needs. Every member of the group has a different purpose for joining the organisation but as members of the organisation, they work towards fulfilling the common organisational goal.
• Management is a dynamic function: Management is a dynamic function and has to adapt itself to the changing environment. An organisation interacts with its external environment which consists of various social economic and political factors.
• Management is an intangible force: Management is an intangible force that cannot be seen but its presence can be felt in the way the organisation functions. The effect of management is noticeable in an organisation where targets are met according to plans employees are happy and satisfied.

Question 20.
What are the steps taking by management in the planning process?
Answer:
Planning as well as knowledge is deciding in advance what to do and how to do. The steps are taking by management in the planning process are as follows:
(i) Setting Objectives: The first and foremost step is setting objectives. Every organisation must have certain objectives. Objectives may be set for the entire organisation and each department or unit within the organisation.

(ii) Developing premises: Planning is concerned with the future which is uncertain and every planner is using conjecture about what happens in future. Therefore, the manager is required to make certain assumptions about the future. These assumptions are premises.

(iii) Identifying alternative courses of action: Once objectives are set, assumptions are made. Then the next step would be to get upon them. There may be many ways to act and active objectives.

(iv) Evaluating alternative courses: The next step is to weigh the pros and cons at each alternative. Each course will have many variables which have to be weighed against each other. The positive and negative aspects of each proposal need to be evaluated.

(v) Selecting an alternative: This is the real point of decision making. The best plan has to be adopted and implemented. The ideal plan, of course, would be the most feasible, profitable and with least negative consequences.

(vi) Implementing the plan: This is the step where other managerial functions also come into the picture. The step is concerned with putting the plan into action i.e. doing what is required.

(vii) Follow-up action: Plans are being implemented and activities are performed according to schedule is also part of the planning process.

Question 21.
What are the differences between the capital market and money market?
Answer:
Capital market refers to facilities and institutional arrangements through which long-term funds, both debt and equity are raised and invested. It consists of a series of channels through which savings of the community are made available for industrial and commercial enterprises and for the public in general, It directs these savings into this most productive use leading to growth and development of the economy. The capital market consists of development banks, commercial banks and stock exchanges. It is essential that financial institutions are sufficiently developed and that market operations are free, fair, competitive and transparent.

The money market is a market for short term funds which deals in monetary assets whose period of maturity is up to one year. It is a market where low risk, unsecured and short term debt instruments that are highly liquid are issued
and actively traded every day. It enables the raising of short-term funds for meeting the temporary shortages of cash and obligations and the temporary deployment of excess funds for earning returns.

Both the money market and the capital market are the centres which arrange for the transfer of funds from the suppliers of funds to the users of funds. They differ, however in regard to the maturity periods of the financial assets created and debt with for affecting the transfer of funds. Money market arranges for short term and the capital market provides for medium to long term funds. The time length of short-term funds is less than and up to one year.

Question 22.
What are the elements of marketing mixture?
Answer:
The elements of the marketing mix are classified into four categories, popularly known as four Ps of marketing. These are:

1. Product
2. Price
3. Place and
4. Promotion, are discussed as follows :

1. Product: Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value, which is offered to the market for exchange, for example, Hindustan lever, company offers a number of consumer products like toiletries (close-up, toothpaste, lifebuoy, soap etc.) The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price: Price is the number of money customers has to pay to obtain the product. Level of price affects the level of their demand.

3. Place: Place or physical distribution include activities that make firms products available to the target customers. Arises relate to managing inventory, storage and warehousing and transportation of goods from the place it is produced to the place it is required by the buyers.

4. Promotion: Promotion of products and services include activities that communicate availability features, merits, etc of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. The promotional activities and spend a substantial amount of money on the promotion of their goods through using advertising, personal setting and sales promotion techniques.

Question 23.
Explain the various elements of a company which affected the distribution of company’s dividend?
Answer:
Elements affecting the distribution of a dividend of a company.
Dividend and companies Act:

• For any financial year, the company can declare or pay dividend out of those profits of the company for that year which is arrived at after providing depreciation in accordance with the provisions of schedule ” u/s 123 (1)(a)
• If there are undistributed profits of the previous year or years, the company can declare or pay dividends out of such profits which are left over after providing depreciation in accordance with section 123(1)a.
• The company can declare or pay dividend out of money provided by central govt, or state govt.
• The company may, before the declaration of dividend in a financial year may voluntarily transfer some profits to reserve.
• The company can declare or pay dividend out of both types of profit as mentioned in (a) & (b).
• The dividend shall be payable only in cash. However, profits or reserves can be capitalized for the issue of fully paid bonus shares or for paying up any amount for the time being unpaid on any shares held by the members of the company.

Question 24.
What is the importance of packaging in the marketing object?
Answer:
Marketing has been referred to as the performance of business activities that direct the flow of goods and services from producers and consumers. In this process, producers should satisfied customers then every step is very important when producers launch a product in the market. So, the packaging is also a very important stage in preparing product.

Packaging refers to designing the package for the products. After packaging labelling is also very important. Packaging and labelling have become so important in modem day marketing that these are considered as the pillars of marketing. The packaging is important not only for the protection of the products but also serves as a promotional tool. Sometimes the quality of the product is assessed by the buyers from the packaging.

We have seen that in the success of many of the consumer brands in recent times such as Kurkure, lays chips potato waters, clinic plus shampoo, and Colgate, toothpaste etc. Packaging has. played an important rate. Packaging and labelling is the first impression of any product customers attracted by packaging and labelling. Each and every product shoulds attractive look to high demand in the market.

Bihar Board Class 9th Hindi Objective Questions and Answers Key 2019, 2020, 2021 Pdf free download गोधूलि, वर्णिका भाग 1 कक्षा 9.

Bihar Board 9th Objective Questions and Answers

Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Questions and Answers Key 2020-2021 Pdf Download

Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Answers गोधूलि

Godhuli Bhag 1 Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Answers गद्य खण्ड

• Chapter 1 कहानी का प्लाँट
• Chapter 2 भारत का पुरातन विद्यापीठ : नालंदा
• Chapter 3 ग्रीम-गीत का मर्म
• Chapter 4 लाल पान की बेगम
• Chapter 5 भारतीय चित्रपट : मूक फिल्मों से सवाक फिल्मों तक
• Chapter 6 अष्टावक्र
• Chapter 7 टॉलस्टाय के घर में
• Chapter 8 पधारो म्हारे देश
• Chapter 9 रेल-यात्रा
• Chapter 10 निबंध
• Chapter 11 सूखी नदी का पुल
• Chapter 12 शिक्षा में हेर-फेर

Godhuli Bhag 1 Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Answers पद्य खण्ड

• Chapter 1 रैदास के पद
• Chapter 2 मंझन के पद
• Chapter 3 गुरुगोविंद सिंह के पद
• Chapter 4 पलक पाँवड़े (अयोध्या सिंह उपाध्याय ‘हरीऔध’)
• Chapter 5 मै नीर भरी दुःख की बदली (महादेवी वर्मा)
• Chapter 6 आ रही रवि के सवारी (हरिवंशराय बच्चन)
• Chapter 7 पूरा हिन्दुस्तान मिलेगा (केदारनाथ अग्रवाल)
• Chapter 8 मेरा ईश्वर (लीलाधर जगूड़ी)
• Chapter 9 रूको बच्चों(राजेश जोशी)
• Chapter 10 निम्मो की मौत (विजय कुमार)
• Chapter 11 समुद्र (सीताकांत महापात्र)
• Chapter 12 पाब्लो नेरुदा

Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Answers वर्णिका

• Chapter 1 बिहार का लोकगायन
• Chapter 2 बिहार की संगीत साधना
• Chapter 3 बिहार में नृत्यकला
• Chapter 4 बिहार में चित्रकला
• Chapter 5 मधुबनी की चित्रकला
• Chapter 6 बिहार में नाट्यकला
• Chapter 7 बिहार का सिनेमा संसार
• Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Model Set 1
• Bihar Board 9th Hindi Objective Model Set 2

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Model Papers

Bihar Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 in English Medium

Time : 3 Hours 15 Min
Full Marks: 100

Instructions for the candidates

1. Candidates are required to give their answers in their own words as far as practicable.
2. Figures in the right-hand margin indicate full marks.
3. While answering the questions, the candidate should adhere to the word limit as for as practicable.
4. 15 minutes of extra time has been allotted for the candidate to read the questions carefully.
5. This question paper has two sections: Section – A and Section – B.
6. In Section – A, there are 50 objective type questions which are compulsory, each carrying 1 mark. Darken the circle with black/blue ball pen against the correct option on OMR Sheet provided to you. Do not use Whitener/Liquid/Blade/Nail on OMR Sheet, otherwise, the result will be treated as invalid.
7. In Section – B there are Non-objective type questions. There are 25 Short answer type questions, out of which any 15 questions are to be answered. Each question carries 2 marks. Apart from this, there are 8 Long answer type questions, out of which any 4 of them are to answer. Each question carries 5 marks.
8. Use of any electronic device is prohibited.

Objective Type Questions

Question No. 1 to 50 have four options, out of which only one is correct, you have to mark the correct option on the OMR Sheet. (50 × 1 = 50)

Question 1.
Income and Expenditure Account is:
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Nominal A/c

Question 2.
Life membership fees received by a club is shown in:
(a) Income & Expenditure A/c
(b) Balance sheet
(c) Cash A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Balance sheet

Question 3.
Legacy should be treated as:
(a) A Liability
(b) Revenue receipts
(c) An income
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Revenue receipts

Question 4.
In the absence of partnership deed, the partner will be allowed interest on the amount advance to the firm:
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 9%
(d) 8%
Answer:
(b) 6%

Question 5.
Which one is not the feature of partnership?
(a) Agreement
(b) Sharing of profit
(c) Limited Liability
(d) Two or more than two-person
Answer:
(c) Limited Liability

Question 6.
In the absence of partnership deed, interest on capital will be given to the partners at;
(a) 8%. p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) 9%
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 6% p.a.

Question 7.
Interest on partners capital is calculated on:
(a) Opening capital
(b) Closing capital
(c) Average capital
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Closing capital

Question 8.
Interest payable on the capital of the partners is recorded in:
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Realisation A/c
(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c

Question 9.
Change in the partnership agreement resulting in:
(a) Reconstitution
(b) Dissolution of firm
(c) Amalgamation of firm
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Reconstitution

Question 10.
Excess of credit side over the debit side in Revaluation Account is a:
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Receipt
(d) Expense
Answer:
(a) Profit

Question 11.
Revaluation A/c or Profit & Loss adjustment A/c is a:
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Real A/c

Question 12.
Generally, the interest on capital is considered as:
(a) An appropriation of profit
(b) An asset
(c) An expense
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) An appropriation of profit

Question 13.
Goodwill is:
(a) Tangible Asset
(b) Intangible Asset
(c) Current Asset
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Intangible Asset

Question 14.
The excess of average profits over the normal profit is called:
(a) Super profit
(b) fixed profit
(c) Abnormal
(d) Normal profit
Answer:
(a) Super profit

Question 15.
The monetary value of the reputation of the business is called:
(a) Goodwill
(b) Super profit
(c) Surplus
(d) Normal profit
Answer:
(a) Goodwill

Question 16.
Profit or Loss on Revaluation is borne by:
(a) Old partners
(b) New partners
(c) All partners
(d) Only two partners.
Answer:
(a) Old partners

Question 17.
Which of the following asset is compulsorily revalued at the time of admission of a new partner:
(a) Stock
(b) Fixed Assets
(c) Investment
(d) Goodwill
Answer:
(d) Goodwill

Question 18.
Share of goodwill brought in cash by the new partner is called:
(a) Assets
(b) Profit
(c) Premium
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Premium

Question 19.
A firm can be voluntarily dissolved by the partners:
(a) On the majority
(b) On 3/4 members decision
(c) On 1/2 members decision
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) On the majority

Question 20.
Insolvency of a partner will come under what type of dissolution of a firm?
(a) Dissolution by court
(b) Compulsory Dissolution
(c) On the happening of certain contingencies
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Compulsory Dissolution

Question 21.
On the firm’s dissolution, which one of the following accounts should be prepared at the last?
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partners capital Account
(c) Bank Account
(d) Partners Loan Account
Answer:
(a) Realisation Account

Question 22.
In the event of dissolution of a partnership firm, the provision for doubtful debts is transferred to:
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partner’s capital A/c
(c) Sundry debtors Account
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Partner’s capital A/c

Question 23.
On dissolution, If a partner undertakes to make payment of a liability of the firm, the account to be debited is:
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Realisation A/c
(c) Partner’s Capital A/c
(d) Bank Account
Answer:
(c) Partner’s Capital A/c

Question 24.
Which of the following is transferred to Realisation A/c:
(a) Balance of cash A/c
(b) Balance of P/L A/c
(c) Creditors
(d) Reserves
Answer:
(c) Creditors

Question 25.
On dissolution of the firm, Loss on realization account is debited to which account?
(a) Cash account
(b) Partner’s capital account
(c) Realisation account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Partner’s capital account

Question 26.
Cash balance shown in the balance sheet is shown on the dissolution of the firm in:
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Cash A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Realisation A/c

Question 27.
On dissolution of a firm, Bank overdraft is transferred to:
(a) Cash A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Realisation A/c
(d) Partner’s Capital A/c
Answer:
(c) Realisation A/c

Question 28.
On dissolution, goodwill account is transferred to:
(a) Partner’s Capital A/c
(b) Credit side of cash A/c
(c) Debit side of Realisation A/c
(d) Credit side of Realisation A/c
Answer:
(a) Partner’s Capital A/c

Question 29.
On dissolution when a partner takes over an asset, is debited:
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Partner’s capital account
(c) Cash account
(d) Asset account
Answer:
(b) Partner’s capital account

Question 30.
Unrecorded Liabilities when paid are shown in:
(a) Debit side of Realisation A/c
(b) Debit side of Bank A/c
(c) Credit side of Realisation A/c
(d) Credit side of Bank A/c
Answer:
(a) Debit side of Realisation A/c

Question 31.
Share Allotment Account is:
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Personal A/c

Question 32.
Which one of the following is the registered capital of the company:
(a) Paid-up capital
(b) Uncalled-up capital
(c) Authorized capital
(d) Issued capital
Answer:
(c) Authorized capital

Question 33.
Dividends are usually paid on:
(a) Authorised capital
(b) Issued capital
(c) Called up capital
(d) Paid-up capital
Answer:
(d) Paid-up capital

Question 34.
Which statement is issued before the issues of shares:
(a) Prospectus
(b) Article of Association
(c) Memorandum of Association
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Prospectus

Question 35.
A debenture is a:
(a) Loan certificate
(b) Cash certificate
(c) Credit certificate
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Loan certificate

Question 36.
Generally, debentures are:
(a) Secured
(b) Party secured
(c) Unsecured
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Unsecured

Question 37.
Rate of Interest on debenture is:
(a) 12% p.a
(b) 20% p.a
(c) Fixed rate
(d) 15% p.a
Answer:
(a) 12% p.a

Question 38.
Parents and copyrights fall under the category of:
(a) Current Assets
(b) Liquid Assets
(c) Intangible Assets
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Intangible Assets

Question 39.
Goodwill falls under which category of assets:
(a) Current Assets
(b) Tangible Assets
(c) Intangible Assets
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Intangible Assets

Question 40.
Preliminary expenses are shown in the Balance sheet under which head:
(a) Fixed Assets
(b) Reserve and Surplus
(c) Loan & Advances
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Loan & Advances

Question 41.
The financial statements of a business enterprise include:
(a) Balance-sheet
(b) P/L account
(c) Cash flow statement
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 42.
In which meeting of company directors report is presented:
(a) Director’s meeting
(b) Annual General meeting
(c) Manager’s meeting
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Annual General meeting

Question 43.
Which of the following is the limitation of financial analysis:
(a) Window – dressing
(b) Basis of Valuation
(c) Lack of Accuracy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Window – dressing

Question 44.
The term “Current Liabilities” does not include:
(a) Sundry Creditors
(b) Debentures
(c) Bills payable
(d) o/s expenses
Answer:
(b) Debentures

Question 45.
Liquid Ratio is also known as:
(a) Current Ratio
(b) Quick Ratio
(c) Capital Ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:

Question 46.
Debit-Equity Ratio is:
(a) Liquidity Ratio
(b) Activity Ratio
(c) Solvency Ratio
(d) Operating Ratio
Answer:
(c) Solvency Ratio

Question 47.
Which of the following is non-operating expense:
(a) Rent
(b) Selling expense
(c) Wages
(d) Loss on sale of machinery
Answer:

Question 48.
The gross profit ratio is the ratio of gross profit to:
(a) Net cash sale
(b) Net credit sale
(c) Closing stook
(d) Net total sale
Answer:
(d) Net total sale

Question 49.
Which activity comes under “Operating Activities”:
(a) Purchase of Land
(b) Issue of Debentures
(c) Issue of Equity share
(d) Cash Sales
Answer:
(d) Cash Sales

Question 50.
Which of the following is not a cash inflow:
(a) Sale of Fixed Assets
(b) Purchase of Fixed Assets
(c) Issue of debentures
(d) Sale of goods for cash
Answer:
(b) Purchase of Fixed Assets

Non-Objective Type Questions

Short Answer Type Questions

Question no. 1 to 25 are short answer type. Answer any 15 questions. Each question carries 2 marks. (15 × 2 = 30)

Question 1.
What is the Receipt & Payment Account?
Answer:
A Receipts and Payments Account is a summary of cash receipts and cash payments relating to a given period. According to William Pickles, “ Receipts and Payments Account is nothing more than a Summary of cash Book over a certain period, analysed and classified under suitable headings. It is the form of account most commonly adopted by the treasurers of societies, clubs, associations, etc. When preparing the result of the year’s working

Question 2.
State two objectives of Receipt & Payment A/c.
Answer:
Following are the two objectives of Receipts and Payments Accounts.

• Receipts and Payments account is prepared to show cash and bank receipts and payments during the period to derive the closing balance of cash and bank.
• It is prepared on the cash basis of accounting.

Question 3.
State any two contents of Partnership deed.
Answer:
Following are the two contents of a Partnership deed:

• The name and address of the firm and its main business.
• The amount of capital to be introduced by Parents.

Question 4.
List any two items which usually appear on the debit side of partners capital Account, when the capital is fixed.
Answer:
Following are the items which usually appear on the debit side of the partner’s capital account, when the capital is fixed:

• Drawings
• Interest on the drawing.

Question 5.
State the circumstances on which reconstitutions of partnership firm can take place?
Answer:
The circumstances on which reconstitutions of partnership firm can take place are as below:

• Change in the profit-sharing ratio among the existing partners.
• Admission of a new partner.
• Retirement of an existing partner.
• Death of a partner.
• The amalgamation of two (or more) partnership firms.

Question 6.
What is the difference between sacrifice ratio & gaining Ratio?
Answer:
Difference between sacrificing ratio and Gaining ratio

Question 7.
Why Revaluation A/c is prepared on the admission of a partner?
Answer:
Revaluation account is a nominal account prepared for the purpose of distributing and transferring the profit or loss arising out of increase or decrease in the book value of assets and/or liabilities of the partnership firm at the time of change in profit sharing ratio, admission of a partner, the retirement of a partner as well as at the time of death of a partner.

Question 8.
How would you calculate the amount payable to the retiring partner?
Answer:
Considering the following point, we can calculate the amount payable to the retiring partner.
(i) The entire amount can be paid in cash.
(i) If fund available:
Journal Entry:
Retiring partner’s capital A/c … Dr.
To Cash A/c
(ii) If the loan is taken from the bank:
(a) Bank or cash A/c … Dr.
To Bank loan A/c
(b) Retiring partner’s capital A/c … Dr
To Bank or Cash A/c
(ii) By transferring capital Balance into Retiring partner’s loan Account:
Journal Entry:
Retiring Partner’s Capital A/c … Dr.
To Retiring Partner’s Loan A/c
(iii) Payment partly in cash and partly by transferring to loan A/c.
Journal Entry:
Retiring Partner’s Capital A/c … Dr
To Cash A/c
To Retiring Partner’s Loan A/c
(iv) Payment of Retiring partner’s loan.in Instalments.
Journal Entry:
(a) Interest A/c … Dr.
To Retiting partner’s Loan A/c
(b) Retiring Partners’s Loan A/c … Dr
To Cash or Bank A/c
(c) Profit and Loss A/c … Dr
To Interest A/c

Question 9.
What are the methods of calculating the deceased partner’s share in the profit of the firm up to the date of death?
Answer:
Following are the method of calculating the deceased partner’s share in the profit of the firm up to the date of death.

• On the basis of time
• On the basis of turnover or sales.

Question 10.
State any two bases on which a court can pass an order for dissolution of the firm.
Answer:
Two bases on which a court can pass an order for dissolution of the firm are mention below.

• A partner becoming of unsound mind.
• On misconduct of a partner affecting business.

Question 11.
Give any two objectives of preparing Realisation A/C.
Answer:
Following are the two objects of preparing realisation Account.

• Realisation account is prepared for disposing of all the assets of the firm and making payment to all the liabilities and dissolution expenses.
• Realisation account is prepared to find out the profit or loss on realisation of assets and payment of liabilities.

Question 12.
What is meant by Government Company?
Answer:
A government company is a company registered under the Indian Companies Act in which not less than 51% of paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or State government or partly by Central government partly by one or more State government.

Question 13.
What is meant by the issue of shares at a premium?
Answer:
A company issues its shares at a premium; when the price at which it sells the shares is higher than their par value. This is quite common since the par value is typically set a minimal value such as Rs. 10 per share. The amount of the premium is the difference between the par value and the selling price.

Question 14.
State two provisions of the companies Act, 2013 for the issue of shares at a discount.
Answer:
When shares are issued at a price less than their face value it is said they have been issued at discount.
According to section 53:

• Except as provided in section 54 of the Indian Companies Act, 2013, a company shall not issue shares at a discount.
• Any shares issued by a company at a discounted price shall be void.

Question 15.
State two purposes for which security premium amount can be used by a company.
Answer:
Following are the two purpose for which security premium amount can be used by a company.

• Issuing fully paid bonus shares to the members.
• Writing off the Preliminary expenses of the company.

Question 16.
How would you treat discount on issue of debentures?
Answer:
When debentures are issued at a discount the amount of discount is debited to Discount on issue of Debentures is a capital loss and is normally recorded at the time of allotment money due.
Discount or loss should be written off as early as possible but within the loan period.

Question 17.
Name out the ways of redemption of debentures.
Answer:
Methods or way of redemption of debentures are as follow:

• Lump-sum payment on Maturity.
• The draw of lots or Annual drawings payments in instalments.
• Purchase of own Debentures in the open market.
• Redemption by conversion in shares or Debentures.

Question 18.
What are the elements of financial statements?
Answer:
Elements of financial statements are as follow.

• Assets
• Liabilities
• Equity
• Income
• Expenses.

Question 19.
What are the limitations of Financial Statements?
Answer:
Limitations of financial statement are as follow:

• Based on historical data.
• Based on Traditions and conventions.
• Ignore Qualitatitave Aspect.
• Ignore price level changes.
• Scope of Manipulations.
• Influenced by Personal Judgements.
• Artificial view.

Question 20.
State two objectives of Financial Statement Analysis?
Answer:
Following are the two objectives of Financial Analysis:

• To determine the value of the business.
• To determine the value of goodwill.

Question 21.
State the two utility of Comparative financial statement.
Answer:
Following are the two utility of comparative financial statements.

• Easy comparison.
• Indicate the trend of progress.

Question 22.
What is Profitability Ratio?
Answer:
Profitability refers to the ability of a business to earn a profit. It shows the efficiency of the business. These ratios measures the profit earning capacity of the company. Profitability has a direct link with sales. This is why we calculate these ratios on the basis of sales.

Question 23.
Name the two importance of Ratio – Analysis.
Answer:
Importance of Ratio Analysis are as below:

• Accounting ratios make the figures simple and understandable.
• Accounting ratios facilitate comparative analysis of the performance.

Question 24.
Explain the uses of the cash flow statement.
Answer:
Following are the uses of the cash flow statement:

• Cash flow statement aims at high lights the cash generated from operating activities.
• Cash flow statement helps in planning the repayment of loan schedule and replacement of fixed assets etc.
• Cash is the centre of all financial decisions. It is used as the basis for the projection of future investing and financing plans of the enterprise.
• Cash flow statement helps in the efficient and effective management of cash.

Question 25.
What is meant by cash flow from operating activities?
Answer:
Cash flows from operating activities are the cash flows from the principal revenue-producing activities of the enterprise.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question No. 26 to 33 are long answer type. Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 5 marks. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 26.
A Rotary Club has kept its accounts on a cash basis and figures for the last year are given below. Prepare Receipts & Payments Account for the year.
Answer:
Receipts and payments Account

Question 27.
How is income and Expenditure Account prepared from Receipts and Payments Account?
Answer:
Income and expenditure are prepared from receipts and payment account and additional information mention below. Step involved in the preparation of Income and expenditure account following is the steps to be taken care while preparing income and expenditure account from receipts and payment A/c.

• Step – 1: Include all items of revenue receipts and expenses, on the respective side of the account.
• Step – 2: Ensure that no items of capital incomes and expenses are included in this account.
• Steps – 3: Also, adjustment for amounts prepared and outstanding, with respect to each item will have to be made.
• Step – 4: Further, items included in receipts and payment account, depreciation, provisions, and profit or loss on the sale of assets will have to be included in this account.
• Steps – 5: Finally, after putting down all items of revenue and expenses. You will get a balance. The resulting balance will then reveal the surplus or deficit for the period.

Question 28.
A and B are equal partners in a firm. On 1st January 2018, their capital respectively is Rs. 13000 and Rs. 11000. They admit C a partner for 1/4 share of the firm. This new partner brought his capital on the basis of the combined capital of A & B Adjust the old partners capital account according to the new profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
The combined capital of A and B = Rs. 13,000 + 11,000 = 24,000
C’s share in profit = 1/4
Let the profit of the firm be 1, then
Combined share of A and B = \(1-\frac{1}{4}=\frac{5}{4}\)
Reciprocal of \(\frac{5}{4}=\frac{4}{5}\)
Therefore, the total capital of the firm = Rs. 24000 × \(\frac{5}{4}\) = 30,000
C’s share in total capital = 30,000 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 7500
C’s share in capital on the basis of combined capital of A and B = 24,000 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 6000

Question 29.
Describe the methods of payment of the amount due to a retiring partner?
Answer:
Following are the adjustment at the time of retirement of a partner. On the retirement of a partner, there is a change in the relations of the partners and reconstitution of the partnership firm. An existing partner leaves the firm and remaining partners continue in the firm under the fresh agreement. Following are the various matters that need adjustment at the time of retirement of a partner.

• Changing in profit – sharing Ratio.
• Accounting Treatment of Goodwill.
• Revaluation of Assets and Liabilities.
• Distribution of Accumulated profits (Reserve) and Losses.
• Joint Life (Insurance) Policy.
• Calculation of Total Amount Payable to Retiring Partner.
• Statement of the Total Amount Payable to Retiring Partner.
• Adjustment of capitals.

Question 30.
What Journal entries will you pass in case of dissolution of the partnership firm?
Answer:
Journal entries at the time of Dissolution of a firm are the following:

Question 31.
Pass the necessary journal entries for the following transactions on the dissolution of the firm of P and Q after the various Assets (other than cash) and outside liabilities have been transferred to Realisations A/C:

1. Bank loan Rs. 12,000 paid.
2. Stock worth Rs. 16,000 was taken over by partner Q.
3. Partner P paid a creditor Rs. 4,000
4. Assets not appearing in the books of account realized Rs. 1200.
5. Expenses of Realisation Rs. 2,000 paid by partner Q.

Answer:

Question 32.
A company earns a gross profit of 20 % on cost. Its credit sales are twice its cash sales. If the credit sales are Rs. 4,00,000, Calculate the gross profit of the company.
Answer:
Credit sales = 4000,000
Cash sales (1/2 of credit sales ) = 200,000
Total sales = 600,000
We know that 20% of cost = 16.67 % of sales
Gross profit = \(\frac{600,000 \times 16.67}{100}\) = 100,020

Question 33.
Compute the “cash from operating activities” by Indirect method from the following details.

Answer:
Calculation of cash flow from operation.